Answer:
$1.5 million
Explanation:
The computation of break even sales in dollars is shown below:
= (Fixed expenses) ÷ (profit volume ratio)
where,
Contribution margin = Sales - Variable expense
= $2,500,000 - 1,050,000
= $1,450,000
And, Profit volume ratio = (Contribution) ÷ (sales) × 100
So, the Profit volume ratio = ($1,450,000) ÷ ( $2,500,000) × 100 = 58%
And, the fixed expenses is $870,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= ($870,000) ÷ (58%)
= $1.5 million
D) the company’s raw materials
The reason being is that it’s the only option where it has more unique potential cause the other ones anyone could get
Answer:
The percentage change in nominal GDP from 2013 to 2014 was 4.29%
The percentage change in real GDP from 2012 to 2013 was 1.48%
The percentage change in real GDP from 2012 to 2013 was higher than the percentage change in real GDP from 2011 to 2012. FALSE
Explanation:
In order to calculate this we just have to calculate the percentages with a rule of thirds:
![\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BGDP1%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BGDP2%7D%7Bx%7D)
To calculate the first one we use the nominal GDP which is the GDP with the current market value:
![\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{16,663.2}{100}= \frac{17,348.1 }{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(17,348.1}{16,663.2} \\x=4.29%](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BGDP1%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BGDP2%7D%7Bx%7D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7B16%2C663.2%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B17%2C348.1%20%7D%7Bx%7D%5C%5Cx%3D%5Cfrac%7B%28100%29%2817%2C348.1%7D%7B16%2C663.2%7D%20%5C%5Cx%3D4.29%25)
To calculate the change in real GDP we use the values adapted to a pre-agreed monetary value, in this case the dollar at 2009:
![\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{15,354.6}{100}= \frac{15,583.3}{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(15,583.3}{15,354.6} \\x=1.48%](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BGDP1%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BGDP2%7D%7Bx%7D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7B15%2C354.6%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B15%2C583.3%7D%7Bx%7D%5C%5Cx%3D%5Cfrac%7B%28100%29%2815%2C583.3%7D%7B15%2C354.6%7D%20%5C%5Cx%3D1.48%25)
To calculate the 2011 to 2012 we insert the values:
![\frac{GDP1}{100}= \frac{GDP2}{x}\\\frac{ 15,020.6}{100}= \frac{15,354.6}{x}\\x=\frac{(100)(15,354.6}{ 15,020.6} \\x=2.22%](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BGDP1%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7BGDP2%7D%7Bx%7D%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7B%2015%2C020.6%7D%7B100%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B15%2C354.6%7D%7Bx%7D%5C%5Cx%3D%5Cfrac%7B%28100%29%2815%2C354.6%7D%7B%2015%2C020.6%7D%20%5C%5Cx%3D2.22%25)
So with this we know that it is wasn´t higher the percentage change from 2012-2013, than that of 2011-2012
Answer: $155,520
Explanation:
Pension Expense = Service Cost - Expected return on plan assets + Prior service cost amortization + Interest cost
Interest Cost
= Interest rate * Projected benefit obligation
= 0.09 * 728,000
= $65,520
Pension Expense = 110,000 - 30,000 + 10,000 + 65,520
= $155,520
<u>Answer: </u>True
<u>Explanation:</u>
Here for calculation of the profit or loss the cost of production cannot be used for comparison as they are the sunk cost it cannot be used for taking sale or rework decision. It is given the proceeds from the sale of inventory would be $425,000 and the cost of rework will be $150,000.
Net proceeds from sale of units = 425000 - 150000
=$275,000
It is clear that these profits are lower than the sale of these units without repair. Sale proceeds without repair is $325,000. So MR corporation can make decision to sell the units without repair for better benefits.