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Masja [62]
3 years ago
7

Two speedboats can each travel at V= 5 m/s with respect to water. One boat crosses the

Physics
1 answer:
charle [14.2K]3 years ago
5 0
Consider the travel of the speedboat from A to B and back.
Refer to the first figure.
The boat travels at 5 m/s relative to the water, and the downstream speed of the water is 0.5 m/s.
Therefore,
V₁=5 m/s, u = 0.5 m/s, sinθ = 0.5/5 = 0.1 => θ = arcsin(0.1) = 5.74°.
The boat should travel upstream at 5 m/s, at an angle of 5.74°.

Similarly, return speed from B to A is 5 m/s, at 5.74° upstream.

The horizontal component of velocity from A to B (or vice versa) is 
5cos(5.74°) = 4.975 m/s.

The time required to travel 1000 m is
1000/4.975 = 202.02  = 3.367 min.
The time for the return trip is
t₁ = 2*3.367 = 6.734 min.

Consider travel from C to D and back, as shown in the second figure.
The resultant velocity upstream from C to D is
V₁ = 5 - 0.5 = 4.5 m/s
The time required to travel 1000 m fromC to D is
1000/4.5 = 222.22 s

The resultant velocity downstream from D to C is
V₂ = 5 + 0.5 = 5.5 m/s
The time required to travel fro D to C is 
1000/5.5 = 181.82 s
Total time for the return trip between C and D is
t₂ = 222.22 + 181.82 = 404.04 s = 6.734 min

Answer:
The first boat should travel upstream at an angle of 5.74°. The time for the return trip between A and B is t₁ = 6.734 min or 404.04 s.

The second boat travels upstream against the current, and downstream with the current. The time for the return trip between C and D is t₂ = 6.734 min or 404.04 s.

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Answer:

The solid ball and hollow ball both will reach the bottom with the same speed.

Explanation:

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The speed can be calculated as

v = √(10/7)gh

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sinθ = h/L

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v = √(10/7)*9.8*1.72

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Both balls will reach the bottom at the speed of 4.91 m/s.

8 0
3 years ago
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Complete question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image  

Answer:

The velocity is  v = c* \sqrt{1 -  \frac{1}{n^2} }

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

           a = nb

The length of the minor axis  of  the symbol of the Federation, a circle, seen by the observer at velocity v must be equal to the minor axis(b) of the  Empire's symbol, (an ellipse)

Now this length seen by the observer can be mathematically represented as

        h = t \sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} }

Here t  is the actual length of the major axis of of the  Empire's symbol, (an ellipse)

So t = a = nb

and  b is the length of the minor axis of the symbol of the Federation, (a circle) when seen by an observer at velocity v which from the question must be the length of the minor axis of the of the  Empire's symbol, (an ellipse)

 i.e    h = b

So

    b  =  nb  [\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} } ]  

     [\frac{1}{n} ]^2 =  1 -  \frac{v^2}{c^2}

      v^2 =c^2 [1- \frac{1}{n^2} ]

       v^2 =c^2 [\frac{n^2 -1}{n^2} ]

        v = c* \sqrt{1 -  \frac{1}{n^2} }

     

     

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KATRIN_1 [288]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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That is the reason there is no effect on net K.E when moving from a potential to same potential over and over (A to C).

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Explanation:

I hope it's helpful!

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