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Alexxx [7]
4 years ago
13

A triangular piece of rubber is stretched equally from all sides, without distorting its shape, such that each side of the enlar

ged triangle is twice the length of the original side.
The area of the triangle to times the original area.
Mathematics
2 answers:
3241004551 [841]4 years ago
6 0
<span>The area increases to 2 times the original value. </span>
butalik [34]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The area of the new enlarged triangle is 4 times the original triangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets take this triangle to be an equilateral triangle.

Area is given by :\frac{\sqrt{3} }{4} \times a^{2}

And let us assume the side to be 7 units.

Area when side is 7 units:

So, area = \frac{\sqrt{3} }{4} \times(7)^{2}

= 21.22 square units.

When each side is enlarged to twice. That gives side is 14 units.

So, area = \frac{\sqrt{3} }{4} \times(14)^{2}

= 84.87 square units

So, the enlarged area is : \frac{84.87}{21.22}= 3.999≈ 4 times the original area.

Answer: The area of the new enlarged triangle is 4 times the original triangle.

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A company establishes a fund of 120 from which it wants to pay an amount,C, to any of its 20 employees who achieve a high-perfor
Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

C=120/2=60

Step by step Explanation'

To solve this problem, we will need to apply trial-and-error calculation with the binomial distribution, even though it appears like Central Limit Theorem but it's not.

For us to know the value of C , we will look for a minimum integer such that having 'n' number of high performance level of employee has the probability below 0.01.

Determine the maximum value of C, then the maximum value that C can have is 120/n

Let us represent X as the number of employees with high performance with a binomial distribution of

P =0.02( since the percentage of chance of achieving a high performance level is 2%)

n = 20 ( number of employees who achieve a high performance level)

The probability of X= 0 can be calculated

P( X= 0) = 0.98^n

P(X=0)=0.98^20

P(X=0)=0.668

P(X=1)=0.02*20*0.98^19

P(X=1)=0.272

P(X=2)=0.02^2*20*0.98^18

P(X=2)=0.053

Summation of P( X= 0)+ P( X= 1)+P( X= 2) will give us the value of 0.993 which is greater than 0.99( 1% that the fund will be inadequate to cover all payments for high performance.)

BUT the summation of P( X= 0)+ P( X= 1) will give the value of 0.94 which doesn't exceed the 0.99 value,

Therefore, the minimum value of integer in such a way that P(X >2) is less than 0.01 have n= 2

then the maximum value that C can have is 120/n

C=120/2=60

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Answer:

Albert is 24. Albert's father is 48

Step-by-step explanation:

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