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denis-greek [22]
3 years ago
13

Which distribution is likely to have a mean higher than the median?

Mathematics
1 answer:
qwelly [4]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A distribution that is skewed to the right is likely to have a mean higher than the median.

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A vase in Sharon's kitchen cabinet is in the shape of a cylinder. The base of the vase has a radius of 6 inches.What is the circ
Mila [183]
Step by step explanation:

R squared= 6inchx6inch=36inchxpie
The formula is circumference x pie

Answer:

113.04 I think. I hope this helped
6 0
3 years ago
5. 5 sec2 0 = 6 sec o
bija089 [108]

Answer:

11.5 sec

Step-by-step explanation:5.5+6=11.5

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the equation of a line that is parallel to the line 2x + 5y = 10 and passes through the point (-5, 1)? Check all
Lilit [14]

Answer:

B, E

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of that line in slope intercept form is y = -2/5x + 2

The slope of a line parallel to that line will be the same as its slope, so -2/5.

To find the y-intercept of a line that passes through the point (-5, 1) with that slope, you will have to plug in the x and y values of that point into what you know of the equation of the line.

y = -2/5x + b

1 = -2/5(-5) + b

1 = 2 + b

-1 = b

From this, you can construct an equation.

y = -2/5x - 1

However, this is not an answer choice.  

It cannot be A because this line does not have a slope of -1.

2x + 5y = 15

5y = -2x - 5

y = -2/5x - 1

It can be B because this line is the same as the equation we came up with.

It cannot be C because this line does not have a slope of -1 or a y-intercept of -3.

2x + 5y = -15

5y = -2x - 15

y = -2/5x - 3

It cannot be D because this line does not have a y-intercept of -3.

y - 1 = -2/5(x + 5)

y - 1 = -2/5x - 2

y = -2/5x - 1

It can be E because this equation matches the one we came up with.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plz answer this question:
d1i1m1o1n [39]

Yes, Lord Vader !

                                               2/3 x + 5   = 1/2

Multiply each side by  2 :       4/3 x + 10  =  1

Multiply each side by  3 :         4  x + 30  =  3  <== equivalent equation
                                                                                without fractions
 
Subtract  30  from each side:  4x             =  -27

Divide each side by  4 :            x              =  -27/4  =  -6.75 

6 0
3 years ago
A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And \pi is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so \pi = 0.30

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so n = 10

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is P(X > 1)

We have that:

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

We also have that:

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

So

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493

Finally

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0
3 years ago
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