According to me the probability is 1/4, because there are 4 possible outcomes when two coins are flipped - TT, TH, HT, HH.
<span>Also, would it matter if the coins are flipped one after other rather than together</span>
Answer:
431.2
Step-by-step explanation:
hope this helps :3
See below for the proof of the equation
<h3>How to prove the equation?</h3>
The equation is given as:

Take the LCM

Expand

Evaluate the like terms

Rewrite as:

Factorize the numerator

Divide
2(a - b)= 2(a - b)
Both sides are equal
Hence, the equation
has been proved
Read more about equations at:
brainly.com/question/2972832
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Answer:
71
Step-by-step explanation:
The reference angle is always the smallest angle with the x-axis.
The nearest x axis is at 0 or another name for 0 is 360
360 -289 = 71
The reference angle is 71
Answer:
176
Step-by-step explanation:
First term (a) = 29
Common difference (d) = 32 - 29 = 3
For calculating the 50th term , n = 50
Now

hope it will help :)