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SOVA2 [1]
3 years ago
13

Below is a list of prices for zero-coupon bonds of various maturities. Maturity (Years) Price of $1,000 Par Bond (Zero-Coupon) 1

$ 949.20 2 866.42 3 817.77 a. An 8.6% coupon $1,000 par bond pays an annual coupon and will mature in 3 years. What should the yield to maturity on the bond be? (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.) b. If at the end of the first year the yield curve flattens out at 7.9%, what will be the 1-year holding-period return on the coupon bond? (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
REY [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a. 6.91%

b. 8.46%

Explanation:

to calculate YTM of zero coupon bonds:

YTM = [(face value / market value)¹/ⁿ] - 1

  • YTM₁ =  [(1,000 / 949.20)¹/¹] - 1 = 5.35%
  • YTM₂ =  [(1,000 / 886.42)¹/²] - 1 = 6.21%
  • YTM₃ =  [(1,000 / 817.77)¹/³] - 1 = 6.94%

a. A 8.6% coupon $1,000 par bond pays an annual coupon and will mature in 3 years. What should the yield to maturity on the bond be?

the bond's current market price:

  • $1,000 / 1.0694³ = $817.67
  • $86/1.0535 + 86/1.0621² + 86/1.0694³ = $81.63 + $76.24 + $70.32 = $228.19
  • current market price = $1,045.86

YTM = [C + (FV - PV)/n] / [(FV + PV)/2] = [86 + (1,000 - 1,045.86)/3] / [(1,000 + 1,045.86)/2] = 70.71 / 1,022.93 = 6.91%

b. If at the end of the first year the yield curve flattens out at 7.9%, what will be the 1-year holding-period return on the coupon bond?

the bond's current market price:

$1,000 / 1.079³ = $796.04

$86/1.0535 + 86/1.079² + 86/1.079³ = $81.63 + $73.87 + $64.46 = $219.96

current market price = $1,016

you invest $1,016 in purchasing the bond and you receive a coupon of $86, holding period return = $86 / $1,016 = 8.46%

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Which sentence indicates that Roger's company, Fine Jewelry, follows a subscription business model? Roger's company, Fine Jewelr
nlexa [21]

Answer:

Its "Customers get a new piece of jewelry every three months.

Explanation:

The first option, never tells what the customer gets in return.

 Sorry this answer is two weeks late. Happy Thanks Giving!

6 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of 2021, Brad’s Heating & Air (BHA) has a balance of $24,800 in accounts receivable. Because BHA is a priva
NISA [10]

Answer:

  • 3. Calculate bad debt expense for 2021 and 2022 under the allowance method and under the direct write-off method, prior to any adjusting entries.
  • 2021

Under the Allowance Method    

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 5.960  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 5.960

Under the Direct Write-Off Method    

There aren't movements of writen-off accounts.

  • 2022

In 2022, customers’ accounts totaling $6,800 are written off as uncollectible.

Under the Direct Write-Off Method    

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 6.800    

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 6.800  

Under the Allowance Method    

3. Calculate bad debt expense for 2022 under the allowance method  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 5.440  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 5.440

Explanation:

  • Initial Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 24.800

  • During 2021, install air conditioning systems on account  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 178.000  

Cr Sales  $ 178.000

  • During 2021, collect $173,000 from customers on account.    

Dr Cash $ 173.000  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 173.000

  • 3. At the end of 2021, estimate that uncollectible accounts total 20% of ending accounts receivable.    

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 5.960  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 5.960

  • FINAL Balance 2021  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 29.800  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 5.960

  • 4. In 2022, customers’ accounts totaling $6,800 are written off as uncollectible. Under the Allowance Method  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6.800  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 6.800

  • 4. In 2022, customers’ accounts totaling $6,800 are written off as uncollectible. Under the Direct Write-Off Method  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 6.800  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 6.800

  • Sub TOTAL Balance 2022  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 23.000  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 840

  • 3. Calculate bad debt expense for 2022 under the allowance method  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 5.440  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 5.440

  • FINAL Balance 2022  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 23.000  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 4.600

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of accounts receivables as CREDIT.

Because the company has a debit balance in that account it's necessary to register an entry that compensate the DEBIT value and reflect A CREDIT estimated as % of account receivable.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible.

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

5 0
3 years ago
On January 2, 2015, Roth, Inc. purchased a laser cutting machine to be used in the fabrication of a part for one of its key prod
Irina18 [472]

Answer:

Explanation:

Depreciation is the systematic allocation of the cost of a machine over its useful lifetime.

There are different types of depreciation like the straight line , double declining  and the units of production method.

<u>Workings</u>

Depreciable amount = 120,000-5000 = 115,000

Useful life = 4 years

Depreciation rate = 115000/4 = 25% = 28,750

                                              2015      2016       2017         2018

Straight line depreciation    28,750  28,750   28,750    28,750

Double declining

Double declining rate = 25%*2 = 50%

2015 = 50% * 115,000= 57,500

2016

Opening book value = 115,000-57,500 = 57500

Depreciation = 57,500*50% = 28,750

2017

Opening book value = 57500-28,750 =28750

Depreciation = 50%*28,750 =14,375

2018

Opening book value   28750-14375 = 14375

Depreciation = 14375*50% = 7188

Units of production

2015 = 280000/1150,000*115,000 = 28,000

2016 =430,000/1150000*115000 = 43,000

2017= 360000/1150000*115000 = 36,000

2018 = 80,000/1150000*115000 = 8000

B

IF the machine was bought on July 1, 2015

Straight line depreciation

2015 = (25%*115000 ) /2 = 14,375

2016 =25%* 115,000 = 28,750

2017 = 25%*115000 = 28750

2018 = 25%*115,000 =28750

2019 =(25%*115000)/2 = 14,375

Double declining method

2015

(115,000*50,000)/2 =28750

2016

Opening book value =115,000-28750 =86250

Depreciation = 50%*86250 = 43,125

2017

Opening book value =86250-43125 =43125

Depreciation = 43,125*50% = 21,563

2018

Opening book value

43125-21563 =21562

Depreciation = 21562*50% =10,781

2019

Opening book value = 21562-10781 =10781

Depreciation = 50%*10781 = 5391

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ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

Advantage

Explanation:

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I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

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