Answer:
A) The Heckscher-Ohlin model offers a reasonable explanation of the pattern of trade and the gains from trade.
Explanation:
A) The Heckscher-Ohlin model mentions that some countries have capital products and some have labor work products. In that condition some countries might be producing capital products like cars and mobile phones however these countries might have less labor work products like agricultural products so that they can not produce enough food. In that sense there is a trade that occurs between two countries one having a capital like a car and others having a high food production so the trade gets balance thanks to this import and export of products. Basically, each country exports its products that they are leading whether it has capital good or labor work good and imports goods that they are lack of it whether it is capital or labor work products. Well, gains from trade happens thanks to this exchange. 
B) No, the Heckscher-Ohlin model offers a pattern of trade between two countries according to capital goods and labor work products.
C) No, the Heckscher-Ohlin model explains the gain. Possible to gain from your goods. If a country produces capital good then gains from that or produce labor work good then gains from it by export to other countries that they have lack of that good.
D) The Ricardian trade model focuses only on labor work goods but Heckscher-Ohlin states that trade based on labor work goods and capital goods.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
Explanation:
Step 1. Given information.
- City of 200 people
- 100 rich, 100 poor.
Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.
- P(poor) = 0.9x^2
- P(rich)= 35x-0.1x^2
Step 3. Calculation and step 4. Solution.
P(poor) = p (rich)
0.9x2 = 35x - 0.1x2
1x2 = 35x
x = 35
x is the percentage of rich above 50%, thus there are 35% rich people above 50%.
P (poor) = 1102.5
P (rich) = 1102.5
The equilibrium premium is $1,102.5
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer: c. $100 favorable fixed operating cost variance
Explanation:
Cost Variance is a way of measuring the efficiency of a Company or segment in terms of how well they are managing resources and keeping with the budget. 
It is calculated by subtracting the Actual balance from the Budgeted balance. 
If the result is negative it is called UNFAVORABLE. If it is positive on the other hand it'll be labeled FAVORABLE. 
Option C is correct because,
Budgeted balance of Fixed Cost is 500. 
Actual balance is 400. 
Fixed Operating Cost Variance = 500 - 400
= $100
$100 is positive so it is $100 FAVORABLE. 
 
        
             
        
        
        
Hey You! 
The Corps serves almost as part of the elaborate scenery, sometimes standing perfectly still in a pose for minutes at a time while the main dancers dance downstage.
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
$5,800; $3,200
Explanation:
Calculation to determine The delivery expenses that should be charged to Dept. A and Dept. 
Dept. A and Dept. B
Direct expenses $1,000 $0
Indirect expenses $4,800 $3,200
[$60%*($9,000-$1,000)=$4,800]
[$40%*($9,000-$1,000)=$3,200]
TOTAL $5,800 $3,200
Therefore The delivery expenses that should be charged to Dept. A and Dept. B, respectively, are:$5,800 $3,200