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Paul [167]
3 years ago
7

The bonds issued by Stainless Tubs bear an 8 percent coupon, payable semiannually. The bonds mature in 11 years and have a $1,00

0 face value. Currently, the bonds sell for $952. What is the yield to maturity?
Business
1 answer:
GenaCL600 [577]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

8.69%

Explanation:

Face value (FV)=$ 1,000.00

Coupon rate=8.00%

Interest per period (PMT) =$30.00

Bond price (PV)=$ 952.00

Number of years to maturity 11

Number of compounding periods till maturity (N)                                                  22

Bond Yield to maturity RATE(NPER,PMT,PV,FV)*2 = 8.69 %

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Quantitative easing is the Question 8 options: gradual release of money into the money supply through open market operations. ta
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Answer: targeted use of open market operations in which a central bank targets certain markets

Explanation:

Quantitative easing is referred to as the targeted use of the open market operations whereby a central bank targets certain markets.

Quantitative easing (QE) is a form of monetary policy whereby the central bank buys securities from the open market so as to enable a scenario where there'll be a rise in the money supply and also encourage investment and lending in the economy.

7 0
3 years ago
During a certain six-year period, the consumer price index (CPI) increased by 50%, but during the next sis-year period, it incre
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Answer:

D. Deflation

Explanation:

"Consumer Price Index" <em>(CPI)</em> measures the changes in the weighted average of prices of a market basket (consisting of consumer goods and services). It tells the<u> cost of living for every consumer. </u>

"Inflation" refers to the sustained increase of prices of goods and services while "deflation" refers to the sustained decrease of prices of goods and services.

In the situation above, the CPI is considered lower than before, thus <u>deflation</u> must have occurred during the second six-year period. It shows a <u>negative inflation rate.</u>

So, this explains the answer.

7 0
3 years ago
Susan Sheppard, Creative Design Manager at Word-of-Mouth Marketing Group, is consistently bullied by her colleague, Alexandra Wo
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

Negative reinforcement

Explanation:

Negative reinforcement is a behavioral psychology principle that occur when one's action allows  him / her to escape an unfavorable action before it occurs.

It is mentioned in the scenario that Sheppad  is being bullied and criticized  by Alexandra  , being the boss's sister .

Susan's idea of completing all work including the extras is a behavior intentionally put up to escape the constant unpleasant stimuli from Sheppad.

6 0
3 years ago
Cutler Petroleum, Inc., is trying to evaluate a generation project with the following cash flows:Year Cash Flow0 –$ 39,800,000 1
muminat

Answer:

The two IRRs are: - 76.49% and 36.79%

Explanation:

To simplify our "Hard work", let's denote the cash flow numbers in terms of '000 (To reduce the number of zeros).

IRR is that discount rate R, for which NPV = 0

NPV is the sum of discounted cash inflows and outflows. Therefore,

NPV ($'000) = - 39,800 + (63,800 / (1 + R) - [12,800 / (1 + R)2]

When NPV = 0 [If R is the IRR],

0 = - 39,800 + [(63,800 / (1 + R)] - [12,800 / (1 + R)2]

[12,800 / (1 + R)2] - [(63,800 / (1 + R)] + 39,800 = 0

To simplify further, let's put N = 1 + R. Also, let's divide both sides by 200 [Note: We're only doing arithmetical simplification to reduce the large numbers]]:

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Multiplying all terms by (N2):

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that is,

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This is a quadratic equation with large coefficients. Solving quadratic equation is outside scope of this question (it belongs to Algebra), so I've used an Online Quadratic equation solver**, which returns following values of N:

N = 1.3679, and N = 0.2351

So:

1 + R = 1.3679, Or 1 + R = 0.2351

R = (1.3679 - 1) or R = (0.2351 - 1)

R = 0.3679 or R = - 0.7649

The two IRRs are: - 76.49% and 36.79%

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