All categories

2 years ago

What is the percent decrease from 50 to 3?

1 answer:

4 0

First, subtract:

50 - 3 = 47

Now divide it to 50:

47 / 50 = 0.94

Multiply by 100:

0.94 * 100 = 94%

So the percent decrease from 50 to 3 is 94%.

You might be interested in

Tamika makes a 5.5% commission selling electronics. How much commission does she make if she sells a flat-screen TV for $10,000?

strojnjashka [21]

Answer: She makes $550

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because to find the answer you do 10000t imes 5.5%

And 5.5% is 0.055

So you do 10000 times 0.055

Which is 550

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

5750 divided by 3.78

Tems11 [23]

Answer:

1521.16402

Step-by-step explanation:

use fraction- division format $\frac{x}{y}$

$\frac{5750}{3.78}$

Multiply the numerator and denominator by 100

$\frac{575000}{378}$

Reduce by 2

$\frac{287500}{189}$

Now do long division

1521. 164022

189|287500

- 189

985

- 945

400

- 378

220

- 189

310

- 189

1210

- 1134

760

- 756

- 0

400

- 378

5 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

PLEASEE PLEASE PLEASEE HURRY

Andrej [43]

It is the letter A your welcome

7 0

2 years ago

John is 48 years old. He is planning on retireing when he is 65. He has opened an IRA with an APR of 3.5% compounded daily. If h

alex41 [277]

The amount of money that John would have in his account when he is ready to retire is $6,351,400.21.

<h3>How much would be in the retirement account?</h3>

The formula that can be used to determine the future value of the annuity is

Future value = Daily deposit x annuity factor

Annuity factor = {[(1+r)^n] - 1} / r

Where:

r = 3.5 / 365 = 0.0096%
n = (65 - 48) x 365 = 6205

Annuity factor = [(1.000096^6205) - 1] / 0.000096 = $8468.53

Future value = 750 x $8468.53 = $6,351,400.21

To learn more about annuities, please check: brainly.com/question/24108530

#SPJ1

3 0

1 year ago

Lamar is writing a coordinate proof to show that a segment from the midpoint of the hypotenuse of a right triangle to the opposi

Zanzabum

1. N is a midpoint of the segment KL, then N has coordinates

$\left(\dfrac{x_K+x_L}{2},\dfrac{y_K+y_L}{2} \right) =\left(\dfrac{0+2a}{2},\dfrac{2b+0}{2} \right) =(a,b).$

2. To find the area of △KNM, the length of the base MK is 2b, and the length of the height is a. So an expression for the area of △KNM is

$A_{KMN}=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot \text{base}\cdot \text{height}=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot 2b\cdot a=ab.$

3. To find the area of △MNL, the length of the base ML is 2a and the length of the height is b. So an expression for the area of △MNL is

$A_{MNL}=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot \text{base}\cdot \text{height}=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot 2a\cdot b=ab.$

4. Comparing the expressions for the areas you have that the area $A_{KMN}$ is equal to the area $A_{MNL}$ . This means that the segment from the midpoint of the hypotenuse of a right triangle to the opposite vertex forms two triangles with equal areas.

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers