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GuDViN [60]
3 years ago
14

The yield to maturity (YTM) on 1-year zero-coupon bonds is 7% and the YTM on 2-year zeros is 8%. The yield to maturity on 2-year

-maturity coupon bonds with coupon rates of 14% (paid annually) is 7.9%. a. What arbitrage opportunity is available for an investment banking firm? The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $ 140 and $ 1140 , and respective maturities of one year and two years. b. What is the profit on the activity? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Vikentia [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(a) The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $140 and $1,140 and respective maturities of one and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond.

(b) The profit on the activity equals $0.72 on each bond.

Explanation:

The price of the coupon bond = 140 × PV(7.9%, 2) + 1000 × PV(7.9%, 2)

= 140 × (1-(1/1.079)^2)/0.079 + 1,000/1.079^2

= $1,108.93

If the coupons were withdrawn and sold as zeros individually, then the coupon payments could be sold separately on the basis of the zero maturity yield for maturities of one and two years.

[140/1.07] + [1,140/1.08^2] = $1,108.21.

The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $140 and $1,140 and respective maturities of one and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond.

The profit on the activity equals $0.72 on each bond.

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Question
Crank

In the evolution of the internet e-commerce allows people to make transactions online is the event occurred most recently.

<h3>Why e-commerce has grown up so much?</h3>

Today ecommerce has very vast market online and people are likely to sell and purchase the things online rather than going to physical market.

The increase in e-commerce has brought the emergency of online payment of the goods and services in the ecommerce.

Thus, option A is correct.

For more details about  e-commerce, click here:

brainly.com/question/14157556

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
Which of the following activities are prohibited by the Clayton Act when they lead to less competition? Each of these answers is
mariarad [96]

Answer: All of the Above

Explanation:

The Clayton Act of 1914 was passed to curb unfair business practices as well as to protect the rights of labour.

Some practices that were prohibited when they led to less competition include,

- A firm acquiring a major percentage of the stocks of a competing firm because this could signify an amalgamation of efforts on the part of both firms and they could therefore have some control over Pricing.

-A director from one business sitting on the board of a competing firm because this could lead to cooperating or Corperate espionage.

- A buyer is forced to buy multiple products from a producer in order to get a desired product is expressly forbidden.

5 0
2 years ago
Question 6
Scilla [17]

Answer:

C)refusing to work until certain demands are met.

Explanation:

The idea behind a strike is to remind the employer or owner of the company that workers are a key part of the production. Strikes are an effective form of protest because they can paralyze a factory or a firm.

Strikes are usually more effective when the workers cannot be easily replaced by the employer.

7 0
2 years ago
​________ represents a debt owed for renting a building.A.Rent PayableB.Rent ExpenseC.Rent RevenueD.Prepaid Rent
krek1111 [17]

Answer:

A. Rent Payable

Explanation:

Rent Payable refers to an expense which is certain and is to be paid in future. It represents a debt in the sense that it is an obligation which is required to be met in the near future.

The journal entry for rent payable is recorded as follows,

Rent A/C                                                       Dr.

     To Rent Payable A/C

(Being rent payable recorded)

Rent Payable A/C is a liability while rent is an expense. Expenses are debited and liabilities are credited so as to recognize them.

6 0
3 years ago
How can a country gain from specialization and​ trade? A. A country can specialize in producing that for which it has an absolut
strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

C. A country can specialize in producing that for which it has a comparative advantage and then trade for other needed goods and services.

Explanation:

<em>Comparative advantage</em> is simply evaluating the opportunity cost of other benefits or costs, if the country is opting to choose for a specific category of goods for production purposes.

For example, let's say US can produce 20 Television (TV) sets and 50 Air Conditioners in a month. Here, the opportunity cost of producing 1 TV set is 50/20 i.e. 2.5 Air Conditioners. Similarly, the opportunity cost of producing 1 Air Conditioner (AC) is 20/50 i.e. 0.4 TV set. Hence, US should produce Air Conditioners over TV sets as per <em>Comparative Advantage</em> concept.

Take another example, let's say UK can produce 50 Television (TV) sets and 20 Air Conditioners in a month. Hence, the opportunity cost of producing 1 TV set is 20/50 i.e. 0.4 Air Conditioner. On the other hand, the opportunity cost of producing 1 AC is 50/20 i.e. 2.5 TV sets. Thus, UK should produce TV sets over AC's as per <em>Comparative Advantage </em>model.

Hence, US should export AC's to UK and import TV sets from UK to gain from specialization and trade.

<em> In this way nations can gain from specialization and trade by making use of Comparative Advantage theory</em>.

It is to be noted that <em>Absolute Advantage model </em>of Adam Smith is also good as it highlights production of that good by a country, which it can produce in large quantities with fewer resources and minimal time than any other nation in the world. But the <em>Comparative Advantage Model </em>developed by David Ricardo considers opportunity cost and is much more refined than Absolute Advantage Model.

<em></em>

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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