He will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning next week.
There are 10 balls in each container; for 6 containers, this gives us 10^6 = 1,000,000. There is 1 correct combination of balls, so his chance the first week is 1/1,000,000.
The second week, 1 ball is removed from each container; this will give us 9^6 = 531,441 chances. There is 1 correct combination, so he will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning.
Answer:
It is totaly based on the diagram
Givens
y = 2
x = 1
z(the hypotenuse) = √(2^2 + 1^2) = √5
Cos(u) = x value / hypotenuse = 1/√5
Sin(u) = y value / hypotenuse = 2/√5
Solve for sin2u
Sin(2u) = 2*sin(u)*cos(u)
Sin(2u) = 2(
) = 4/5
Solve for cos(2u)
cos(2u) = - sqrt(1 - sin^2(2u))
Cos(2u) = - sqrt(1 - (4/5)^2 )
Cos(2u) = -sqrt(1 - 16/25)
cos(2u) = -sqrt(9/25)
cos(2u) = -3/5
Solve for Tan(2u)
tan(2u) = sin(2u) / cos(2u) = 4/5// - 3/5 = - 0.8/0.6 = - 1.3333 = - 4/3
Notes
One: Notice that you would normally rationalize the denominator, but you don't have to in this case. The formulas are such that they perform the rationalizations themselves.
Two: Notice the sign on the cos(2u). The sin is plus even though the angle (2u) is in the second quadrant. The cos is different. It is about 126 degrees which would make it a negative root (9/25)
Three: If you are uncomfortable with the tan, you could do fractions.
