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harina [27]
3 years ago
5

Help please!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
adell [148]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1/2?

Step-by-step explanation:

Paha777 [63]3 years ago
3 0
Explanation: Ok so what you want to do is find the pretty points first! After you do that make sure you mark it! You want to use Rise/Run when you do this go to the pretty point and go over till you find the next pretty point! So what I see here is that it goes over 2 then down one! So the rate of change should be 2 since 2/1 is 2!
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Can someone please help me ill give them brainliest awnser if its correct
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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The probability of winning on a slot machine is 5%. If a person plays the machine 500 times, find the probability of winning at
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

Between 0.01 and 0.20

Step-by-step explanation:

I am going to use the normal approximation to the binomial to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that \mu = E(X), \sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}.

In this problem, we have that:

n = 500, p = 0.05

So

\mu = E(X) = np = 500*0.05 = 25

\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{500*0.05*0.95} = 4.8734/tex]
Find the probability of winning at least 30 times.Using continuity correction, this is [tex]P(X \geq 30 - 0.5) = P(X \geq 29.5). So this is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 29.5. Then

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{29.5 - 25}{4.8734}

Z = 0.92

Z = 0.92 has a pvalue of 0.8212

1 - 0.8212 = 0.1788

So the correct option is:

Between 0.01 and 0.20

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3 years ago
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The answer should be 2.12 
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Mekhanik [1.2K]

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