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irina1246 [14]
3 years ago
9

Abe and Bea each have some money to invest in a CD (Certificate of Deposit). Abe has $5,000 and Bea has $20,000. Both are intere

sted in making a 6-month investment at Synchrony Bank. The CD rates for Synchrony Bank (as of July 8, 2015) are as listed below. With 0.41% interest, Abe would get $5,010 in six months. With 0.50% interest, Bea would get $20,050 at the end of six months. If they pool their funds, they will be able to purchase a $25,000 CD, which pays a higher interest rate. The 0.60% interest will return $25,075 at the end of six months. Obviously, Abe gets back his $5,000 principle, and Bea gets back her $20,000 principle. How should the $75 interest be divided between the two of them
Business
1 answer:
hjlf3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Abe = $17.5

Bae = $57.5

Explanation:

Abe's principle = $5,000

Bea's principle = $ 20,000

Abe individual investment yield at 0.41% = (5010-5000) = $10

Bae's individual investment yield at ) 0.50%= (20000-20050) $50

Combined investment yield at 6 % = (25,075 - (20,000+5000) = $75

Extra interest yield = (75-(50+10) = $15

The extra interest yield of $15 should be shared equally among Abe and Bae as a result of joint effort

= 15/2 - $7.5

Therefore , the $75 interest is shared as below

Abe = $10 (interest on individual principle)+$7.5 = $17.5

Bae = $50 (interest on individual principle)+$7.5 = $57.5

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According to your Markel text, which of the following statements is true?a. Memos are commonly written to people outside your ow
mezya [45]

Answer: The correct answer is

b. Memos are commonly written to people within your own organization.

Explanation: Memos are written form of communication in a formal setting. They are written to people within the same organisation.

Memos contain a 'from' and 'to' headings as well as a subject. This helps give the receiver a clear picture of the purpose of the communication as often times the reader skims through the memo to get a clue of the content.

3 0
4 years ago
Cost-volume-profit [CVP] analysis is a widely-used, basic business model. Discuss the underlying assumptions made in the applica
faltersainse [42]

Answer:

Cost-volume-profit [CVP] Analysis

The cost-volume-profit analysis model assumes that the total fixed cost, the variable cost per unit, and the selling price per unit remain constant within the relevant range.

It is very difficult for a company to remain in the relevant range, where the assumptions will be obtained.  Market forces, including the dynamics of competition change the underlying assumptions.  For example, a company may become more efficient in its operations, thereby reducing its variable cost per unit.  The total fixed cost may also change when the company increases its activity levels.

However, these limitations do not make the model less useful.  It can be relied on to make short-run profit and pricing decisions.

Explanation:

The management of a business finds the CVP model useful in making important management decisions, especially decisions that relate to budgeting of production and sales, cost control, and profit planning.  Management uses the CVP model to determine the break-even point in both units and sales dollars.  Overall, management relies on the model to select its competitive products.

7 0
3 years ago
Both Bond Sam and Bond Dave have 10 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Sam has three y
Softa [21]

Answer:

The percentage change in the price of Bond Sam is -4.917%

and

The percentage change in the price of Bond Dave is -14.621%

Explanation:

As both bonds are priced at par, hence the existing interest rate is equal to the coupon rate of 10%

Now increase the interest rate by 2%

Interest rate = 10% + 2% = 12%

Now use 12% to calculate the prices of both bonds by using the following formula

P = [ C x ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] + [ F / ( 1 + r )^n ]

Bond Sam

F = Face value = $1,000

C = Periodic coupon payment = $1,000 x 10% x 6/12 = $50

r = Periodic interest rate = 12% x 6/12 = 6%

n = Numbers of periods = 3 years x 12/6 = 6 periods

Placing values in the formula

P = [ $50 x ( 1 - ( 1 + 6% )^-6 ) / 6% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 6% )^6 ]

P = $245.87 + $704.96

P = $950.83

Bond Dave

F = Face value = $1,000

C = Periodic coupon payment = $1,000 x 10% x 6/12 = $50

r = Periodic interest rate = 12% x 6/12 = 6%

n = Numbers of periods = 18 years x 12/6 = 36 periods

Placing values in the formula

P = [ $50 x ( 1 - ( 1 + 6% )^-36 ) / 6% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 6% )^36 ]

P = $731.05 + $122.74  

P = $853.79

Now calculate the percentage change

Bond Sam

Percentage Change = [ ( $950.83 - $1,000 ) / $1,000 ] x 100 = -4.917%

Bond Dave

Percentage Change = [ ( $853.79 - $1,000 ) / $1,000 ] x 100 = -14.621%

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is true?Select one:a. Overhead costs are often affected by many issues and are frequently too complex to
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

e. When cost analysts are able to logically trace cost objects to costs, costing accuracy is improved.

Explanation:

Overhead costs are costs which can not be attributed to a particular item . So it is distributed among more than one item on some basis.

For example electricity cost is a common overhead in a company having two machines one producing pen and the other producing paper . The overhead electricity cost can be scientifically apportioned in the cost analysis of pen and paper on the basis of wattage capacity of machines used in the manufacture of pen and paper .

6 0
3 years ago
On January 1, Year 1, Dunn Brothers, Inc., purchased a new smartphone case making machine at a cost of $80,000. The estimated re
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

Depreciation expense under:

  • the Straight-line method for Years 1 to 4 is $71,000.
  • the Units-of-production method for Years 1 to 4 is $71,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $75,000.

Explanation:

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($80,000 - $9,000) / 4 years = $17,750 yearly depreciation expense.

Depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4 is $17,750 x 4 years $71,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($80,000 - $9,000) / 710,000 units x 213,000 units = $21,300

At Year 2, DE = $71,000 / 710,000 units x 156,200 units = $15,620

At Year 3, DE = $71,000 / 710,000 units x 195,250 units = $19,525

At Year 4, DE = $71,000 / 710,000 units x 145,550 units = $14,555

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Year 1, followed by Year 2.  

Depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $71,000 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/4years = 25%, then 25% multiplied by 2 to give 50%

At Year 1, 50% X $80,000 = $40,000

At Year 2, 50% X $40,000 ($80,000 - $40,000) = $20,000

At Year 3, 50% X $20,000 ($40,000 - $20,000) = $10,000

At Year 4, 50% X $10,000 ($20,000 - $10,000) = $5,000 (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $75,000 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
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