C because I
Had this question
Answer:
1.25
Explanation:
The Capital Asset Pricing model will be used
ße = ßa × [Ve + Vd(1 – T)] / Ve
Here
ße = 1.08
Ve = Value of equity $50 million
Vd = Value of debt $10 million
T is tax rate which is 21%.
By putting the values, we have:
ße = 1.08 × [50 + 10(1 – 21%)] / 50
ße = 1.25
The beta equity of Chocolate Cookie is 1.25 which shows higher risk than average risk.
Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable
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Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a. The expected value of payout arise from emergency is
= 0.01 × $67,500
= $675
b. The expected value of payout arise from capped coverage insuance is
= (0.9 × $500) + (0.09 × $2,500)
= $675
c. The risk averse shows the minimum exposure with respect to the swings of the income or there would be the loss in the income. Since the payout amount is same in both the cases so here we considered option B