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vovikov84 [41]
2 years ago
9

B) Three times a number minus 4 is four times the number plus 1. What is the number?

Mathematics
1 answer:
dimaraw [331]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

1) write it out:

3x-4=4x+1

2)combine like terms

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100 POINTS!
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in coordinates to see if they match the answer.

It's easier in slope-intercept form, so lets change it first.

-2x+y=7

+2x    +2x

y=2x+7

Now we can plug in the coordinates to see if they match.

Lets try A.

11=2(-2)+7

11=-4+7

11=3

A is incorrect.

Lets try B.

11=2(2)+7

11=4+7

11=11

B is a solution, therefore is on the graph.

3 0
2 years ago
Roger owns a one acre piece of land . The length of the land is 484 feet. What is the width of his property
JulsSmile [24]

1 acre = 43560 square feet

43560 = 484 * X

X=43560/484 = 90

the width = 90 feet

4 0
3 years ago
HELP PLESSE ITS MULTIPLE CHOICE
Andrew [12]

Answer:

<h2><u><em>Letter A</em></u></h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all, we have to solve all the equations

First one is (4*1)-6

<em>We have to use PEMDAS</em>

<em>which stands for </em>

<em>Parenthesis</em>

<em>Exponents</em>

<em>Multiplication</em>

<em>Divison</em>

<em>Addition</em>

<em>Subtraction</em>

In (4*1)-6  

You have to do 4*1 first ~ which equals 4

the next step would be 4-6  ~  which equals -2

The next equation would be (1*4)-6

First do 1*4  ~ which is 4

Next 4-6  ~ which again equals -2

Next equation is (1*6)-(4-6)

Parenthesis first, 1*6=6

4-6=-2

6-(-2)

which equals 8

Our next equation is 6-(1*4)

1*4=4

6-4~ which equals 2

Our last equation is 4*(1-6)

Parenthesis comes first, so it would be 1-6 first

which equals -5

4*(-5) would be our final step  ~  which equals -20

All of our answers would be

-2 - from the top equation

-2 - from letter A

8 - from letter B

2 - from letter C

-20 - from letter D

which means <u><em>Letter A</em></u> is the answer.

Hope this is helpful.

5 0
2 years ago
S KM ∥ JN? Why or why not?
bixtya [17]

Given: We have the given figure through which we can see

LK=16,

KJ=10,

LM=24,

MN=15

To Find: Whether KM || JN and the reasoning behind it.

Solution: Yes, KM || JN because \frac{16}{10}= \frac{24}{15}

Explanation:

For this solution, we use the concept of Similar Triangles.

Now, KM || JN if ΔLKM ~ ΔLJN (i.e., if ΔLKM is similar to ΔLJN).

Now, ∠MLK=∠NLJ

To prove similarity of the two triangles, we have to show that the sides are proportional. In other words, LK:KJ = LM:LN

LK:KJ=LM:LN\\\\ \frac{LK}{KJ} =\frac{LM}{LN}\\\\\frac{16}{26}= \frac{24}{39}\\\\

which is true as both sides simplify to \frac{8}{13}

Thus, we see that ΔLKM ~ ΔLJN (i.e., if ΔLKM is similar to ΔLJN).

Therefore, KM || JN.

To come to the reasoning, notice that

\frac{LK}{LJ} =\frac{LM}{LN}\\\\\frac{LK}{LK+KJ} =\frac{LM}{LM+MN}\\\\\frac{LK+KJ}{LK} =\frac{LM+MN}{LM}\\\\1+\frac{KJ}{LK}=1+ \frac{MN}{LM}\\\\\frac{LK}{KJ} =\frac{LM}{MN}

In other words, \frac{16}{10}= \frac{24}{15}


4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A spinner is divided into five sections, labeled A, B, C, D, and E. Devon spins the spinner 50 times and records the results in
tatuchka [14]

Answer:

64/200 times the spinner will land on vowel

Step-by-step explanation:

On the table, the chart says 10 times for A and 6 times for E. This means that the experimental probability for rolling a vowel in a trial of 50 rolls is 16/50.

The next step is create equal ratios. 16/50 = x/200. 50 times <u>4 </u> is 200 so 16 times <u>4 </u> is 64.

4 0
2 years ago
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