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Alisiya [41]
3 years ago
7

MAT-144-0502

Mathematics
1 answer:
Katena32 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

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Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie
ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that X \sim Poisson(\lambda)

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter \lambda

E(X)=\mu =\lambda

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}

P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}

And replacing we have this:

P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99

And now we can solve for \lambda

0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)

ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)

\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}

Where :

f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)

f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

\lambda \geq 6.63835

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3 years ago
Anna wants to rent movies from either Service A or Service B. Service A charges $37.92 as a subscription fee with a charge of $2
Molodets [167]

Answer:

6 is your answer :)

6 0
3 years ago
Which number is halfway between 318970 and 719070​
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

it is 519020

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve the inequality.<br><br> 2(4x – 3) ≥ –3(3x) + 5x?
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Answer:

x≥1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Store A: 12 pack for $3.00 Store B: 22 pack for $5.50 Store C: 18 pack for $4.75 Store D: 36 pack for $8.00 There is a sale on s
Sergio039 [100]

Answer: Store D: 36 pack for $8.00

◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊

<h3>STEP - BY - STEP EXPLANATION</h3>

◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊

You have to divide the amount of money by the pack number. So A would be 0.25 cents per soda. B would be 0.25 cents per soda. C would be 0.26 cents per soda. And finally, D would be 0.22 cents per soda. Therefore Store D would be the best buy.

Hope this helps!!!!!!!!! ◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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