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WARRIOR [948]
3 years ago
13

A bag contains 6 red marbles and 7 blue marbles. Another bag contains 3 green marbles and 8 yellow marbles. You randomly pick on

e marble from each bag. What is the probability that the marble from the first bag is red and the marble from the second bag is green?
a. 0.126


b. 0.734


c. 0.031


d. 0.375

Mathematics
2 answers:
telo118 [61]3 years ago
7 0
The answer is a. here’s a picture that hopefully helps explain the reasoning/work

Anna71 [15]3 years ago
3 0
The correct one is a)0.126
Ex
You might be interested in
Solve
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

{(5xy)}^{ - 4}  =   \frac{1}{ {(5xy)}^{4} }   =   \frac{1}{ {(5 \times 3 \times 2)}^{4} }   \\  \\  \\  \frac{1}{ {(30)}^{4} }  =  \frac{1}{810000}  = 1.23 \times  {10}^{ - 6}

7 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP
katovenus [111]

<u>Answer:</u>

$593.26

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

We know that the price of the laptop is $2500 and each year its resale value decreases by 25%. It means that 100 - 25 = 75% of the value is retained every year for the resale.

So, the resale value for 1st year = \frac{75}{100} *2500 = $1875

for 2nd year =  \frac{75}{100} *1875 = $1406.25

for 3rd year =  \frac{75}{100} *1406.25 = $1054.7

for 4th year =  \frac{75}{100} *1054.7 = $791.01

for 5th year =  \frac{75}{100} *791.01 = $593.25

Or we can use the following formula to find its resale value after 5 years:

2500*(0.75)^5 = $593.26

4 0
3 years ago
6% sales tax was added
Anettt [7]

Answer:

$12.30

Step-by-step explanation:

6% of $205 =

= 0.06 * $205

= $12.30

Answer: $12.30

7 0
3 years ago
672,591 is closer to 700,000 than
GaryK [48]
That number is closer to 700,000 than 185,505 for example, because it is a bigger number. Hope that makes sense.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Box of 15 gadgets is known to contain 5 defective gadgets if 4 gadgets are drawn at random what is the probability of finding no
baherus [9]

To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:

P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)

where,

n = the total number of gadgets = 4

r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)

p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget

q = probability of failure = 1 – p

 

Calculating for p:

p = 5 / 15 = 0.33

So,

q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67

 

Calculating for P when r = 1:

P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3

P (r = 1) = 0.3970

 

 

Calculating for P when r = 2:

P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2

P (r = 2) = 0.2933

 

Therefore the total probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets is:

P = 0.3970 + 0.2933

P = 0.6903

 

Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.

5 0
4 years ago
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