Answer:
Explanation:
Run A Duration B Duration C Duration 1 51 48 17 2 60 48 19 3 30 39 19 4 31 48 22 5 30 31 14 6 41 16 17 7 44 12 6 8 44 12 10 9 45 43 9 10 60 41 10 Based on the simulated numbers given above, what is the average completion time of the whole project?
Since B is the predecessor of C.
Project completion time for each run will be calculated as Maximum (Duration of A, Duration of B +Duration of C).
Represent
Run = R
Duration of A = DA
Duration of B = DB
Duration of C = DC
Project Completion time = PT
<u>R DA DB DC PT</u>
1 51 48 17 48 + 17 = 65
2 60 48 19 48 + 19 = 67
4 31 48 22 48 + 22 = 70
5 30 31 14 31 + 14 = 45
6 41 16 17 41
7 44 12 6 44
8 44 12 10 44
9 45 43 9 43 + 9 = 52
10 60 41 10 60
<u> Total = 546</u>
Total Project completion time in 10 Stimulations = 546
Average project Completion time = 546/10 = 54.6
Therefore, average Project completion time is between 53 and 56 days.
<span>It's like a type of a</span><span> account in the current liabilities section of a </span><span>company's um I think balance sheet.</span>
Answer:
Dr Payroll Tax Expense: $2,321
Cr FICA- Social security taxes payable $1,054
Cr FICA- Medicare taxes payable $247
Cr SUTA-State unemployment taxes payable $918
Cr FUTA- Federal unemployment taxes payable $102
Explanation:
Preparation of the March 31 journal entry to record the March payroll taxes expense
March 31
Dr Payroll Tax Expense: $2,321
($1,054+$247+$918+$102)
Cr FICA- Social security taxes payable $1,054
[($1,700*10)*6.2%]
Cr FICA- Medicare taxes payable $247
[($1,700*10)*1.45%]
Cr SUTA-State unemployment taxes payable $918
[($1,700*10)*5.4%]
Cr FUTA- Federal unemployment taxes payable $102
[($1,700*10)*0.6%]
(To record payroll taxes expense)
Answer: c. $94,240
Explanation:
On December 31, 2005, one payment has already been made which would mean that only 7 payments are left. As the first of these remaining 7 will be paid the year after, this is an ordinary annuity.
Note payable value = Present value of seven $20,000 payments
= 20,000 * Present value of ordinary annuity of 1 at 11% for 7 years.
= 20,000 * 4.712
= $94,240
Answer:
The answer is $61,000
Explanation:
An impairment loss is recognized when the carrying amount of an asset is less than its fair value(prevailing market price).
The difference between the carrying value and fair value is written off. Carrying amount is the cost of acquiring an asset minus any subsequent depreciation and impairment charges.
Impairment Loss = Book Value – Market Value
Impairment Loss = $177,500 - $116,500
Impairment loss is $61,000
