This is an example of "classical probability". Whenever the probability of all events is the same, then the probability is calculated by dividing the number of "favorable events" of total events.
For this problem, the total number of events is the total number of balls, it is 40. The number of favorable events it the number of pink balls, it is 6.
So, the answer is 6/40, which can be written as 3/20.
The answer is <span>D. –1 + 2 = 1
</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
It is 12 (explanation: unit rate is per unit so 16/16 mile or 1 mile = x minutes so if you multiple 1/16 by sixteen and do the same on the other side (3/4 times 16), you get 20 (hope this helps!)
Answer:
The answer is 17
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the answer, we first have to put the values in for a and b.
√225 + ║2 - 3(1/3)(4)║
√225 + ║2 - 4║
√225 + ║-2║
√225 + 2
15 + 2
17
