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stepan [7]
3 years ago
13

"Explorer, Inc. is considering a new 4-year project that requires an initial fixed asset (equipment) investment of $200,000. The

fixed asset is three-year MACRS property for tax purposes. In four years, the equipment will be worth about half of what we paid for it. The project is estimated to generate $500,000 in annual sales, with costs of $400,000. The firm has to invest $100,000 in net working capital at the start. After that, net working capital requirements will be 25 percent of sales. The tax rate is 21 percent. What is the incremental cash flow in year 4
Business
1 answer:
SOVA2 [1]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The Incremental cash flow in year 4 is $161,112

Explanation:

According to the given data, the Statement showing accumulated depreciation and book value of asset  is as follows:

Year Current year depreciation Accumulated depreciation Book value

0                                                                                   $200,000

1 $200,000*33.33%                          $66,660                    133,340

2 $200,000*44.45%                            $88,900                   44,440

3 $200,000*14.81%                           $29,620                   14,820

4 $200,000*7.41%                            $14,820                     0

After tax salvage value of equipment at the end of 4th year  =(Sale value-Book value)*(1-tax rate)

=[($200,000*50%)-$0]*(1-0.21)

=$79,00 0

Statemet showing Incremental cash flow in year 4

Amout($)

Sales       500,000

Less:Cost 400,000

Less:Depreciation 14,820

Earning before tax 85,180

Less:Tax21% 17,887

Earning after tax 67,292

Add:Depreciation 14,820

Add:after tax salvage value of equipment 79,000

Net cash flow $161,112

The Incremental cash flow in year 4 is $161,112

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Ptarmigan Company produces two products. Product A has a contribution margin of $289.20 and requires 12 machine hours. Product B
jekas [21]

Answer:

Product B

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the Product that is most profitable.

Product A Product B

Contribution margin per unit $289.20 $221.40

÷ Machine hours 12 machine hours 9machine hours

Contribution margin per bottleneck hour 24.1 24.6

(Product A= 289.20/12=24.1)

(Product B =$221.40/9=24.6)

Therefore based on the above calculation PRODUCT B is the most profitable

3 0
3 years ago
If a donor obtains an automatic filing extension for federal individual income tax return
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Net present value: Select one: is the best method of analyzing mutually exclusive projects. is less useful than the internal rat
Leto [7]

Answer:

Is the best method of analyzing mutually exclusive projects.

Explanation:

Net present value is equal to the present value of all the future cash flows of a project, less the initial outlay of project.

Net present value analysis simply concluded about a project to be worth doing when it finds the present value of future cash flows greater than the initial investment and vice versa.

We just have to see which is higher, the present value of future cash flows or the initial investment.

It is assumed that an investment with a positive NPV will be profitable, and an investment with a negative NPV will result in a net loss.

3 0
3 years ago
Gadget Twin Inc. has an expected net operating profit after taxes, EBIT(I-T), 12,600 million in the coming year. In addition, th
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

$10,670 million

Explanation:

The computation of the free cash flow is shown below:

= EBIT × (1 -Tax Rate) + Depreciation & Amortization - Change in Net operating Working Capital - net capital Expenditure.

= $12,600 million - $0 - $1,890 million - $40 million

= $10,670 million

We simply deduct the increase in net operating capital and the net capital expenditure from the EBIT after tax so that the accurate amount can come

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

8 0
4 years ago
Rudyard Corporation had 160,000 shares of common stock and 16,000 shares of 8%, $100 par convertible preferred stock outstanding
snow_lady [41]

Answer:

Diluted EPS = $3.0625

Explanation:

Earning per share (EPS) = earnings available to ordinary shareholders/ number of ordinary shares  possible after conversion

Conversion of preferred stock into common stock

= 16,000 × 5 = 80,000

Number of ordinary shares = common stock + converted preferred stock

= 160000+ 80000  =240,000 units

                                                                     $

Net Income                                             520,000

Preferred dividend (8%×100×16000)     (<u>128000) </u>

Earnings available to shareholders     <u>  392000 </u>

Number of shares                                   240,000

Diluted Earnings per share          

        392,000/240,000= $3.0625

Diluted EPS = $3.0625

                     

5 0
3 years ago
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