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likoan [24]
3 years ago
9

IMB Corporation recently reported an EBITDA of $22.5 million and $5.4 million of net income. The company has $6 million interest

expense and the corporate tax rate is 35 percent. What was the company's depreciation and amortization expense
Business
1 answer:
Mandarinka [93]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$8.2 million

Explanation:

As per given data

EBITDA         $22.5

Net Income    $5.4 Million

Interest Expense = $6 million

Tax rate = 35%

As we know the Tax is deducted from the income before tax to calculate the net income. We will calculate the Earning before tax first.

EBT = Net Income x 100% / ( 100% - 35% )

EBT = 5.4 million x 100% / 65%

EBT = $8.3 million

Now we need to calculate the Earning Before interest and Tax

EBIT = EBT + Tax Expense = $8.3 million + $6 million = $14.3 million

The Difference between EBIT and EBITDA is depreciation and amortization expense.

Depreciation and Amortization expense = EBITDA - EBIT = $22.5 million - $14.3 million = $8.2 million

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Answer:

The answer is: C) the elasticity of​ demand, where the shortages will be larger if demand is more inelastic.

Explanation:

When the demand for a product is completely inelastic it means that the quantity demanded for that product will be the same whether its price increases or decreases. Rarely any product is completely inelastic, but inelasticity shows a tendency of buyers to keep buying a product even if its price rises, for example gasoline.

Inelastic products don´t follow the law of supply and demand, since the price doesn´t alter the demand.

If suppliers can produce enough goods (product shortages) and the quantity demanded stays the same, the price will rise. But if the demand for the product is inelastic then the shortage will get worse since every time more people will want to buy the product and their will be less product to buy.

6 0
3 years ago
The current (year 0) price of the shares of Company XYZ is $50. There are 1 million shares outstanding. Next year (year 1)’s div
otez555 [7]

Answer:

1. The dividend per share in year 2 would be $2.16.

The dividend per share in year 3 would be $2.3328

2. The market value of the firm is $50 million

3. The value of the firm next year after the payout is $ 54

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the dividend per share in year 2 and the dividend per share in year 3 we would have to make the following calculation:

dividend per share in year 2=dividend per share in year 1*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 1=$2

Growth Rate=Retention Ratio * ROE

Growth Rate=40% * 20%

Growth Rate=8%

Therefore, dividend per share in year 2=$2*(1+8%)

dividend per share in year 2=$2.16

dividend per share in year 3=dividend per share in year 2*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.16(1´8%)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.3328

2. In order to calculate the current market value of the firm we would have to make the following calculation:

market value of the firm=Currect Share Price * Number of outstanding shares

According to the given data:

Currect Share Price=$50

Number of outstanding shares=1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50*1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50 million

3. In order to calculate the value of the firm next year after the payout we would have to calculate first the rate of return as follows:

value of the firm =dividend per share in year 1/rate  of return-growth rate

$50* Rate of Return - 4 = $2

Rate of Return = 6 / 50

Rate of Return =12%

Therefore, value of the firm next year after the payout=dividend per share in year 2/rate  of return-growth rate

value of the firm next year after the payout=$2.16/0.12-0.08

value of the firm next year after the payout=$ 54

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Explanation:

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