I=PRT/100
1. Make R (rate) subject
R/100= I/PT
2. Substitute and calculate
r/100= i/pt
r/100= 40/400 × 1
(<em>4</em><em>0</em><em> </em><em>i</em><em>s</em><em> </em>from 440-400.<em>T</em><em>h</em><em>e</em><em> </em><em>i</em><em>n</em><em>t</em><em>e</em><em>r</em><em>e</em><em>s</em><em>t</em>)
r/100= 0.1
r/100×100= 0.1×100
r=10% (interest rate per year)
To confirm
I=PRT
I= 400×10/100×1
I= $40 (Interest)
Answer:
15 is the volume of it
Step-by-step explanation:
hope I helped
400 times ten because when you multiply you get 40,000.
900-2*x>500
2x<900-500
2x<400
x<200
Answer:Beth can ride the bus less 200 times
To solve the
following problems, we use the binomial probability equation:
P (r) = [n!/(n-r)!
r!] p^r q^(n-r)
where,
n = total
number of households = 8
r = number of
sample
p =
probability of success = 65% = 0.65
q = probability
of failure = 0.35
A. r = 5
P (r=5) = [8!
/ 3! 5!] 0.65^5 0.35^3
P (r=5) =
0.28
B. r >5
P (r=6) = [8!
/ 2! 6!] 0.65^6 0.35^2
P (r=6) =
0.26
P (r=7) = [8!
/ 1! 7!] 0.65^7 0.35^1
P (r=7) =
0.14
P (r=8) = [8!
/ 0! 8!] 0.65^8 0.35^0
P (r=8) =
0.03
Therefore
total is:
P (r>5) = 0.26
+ 0.14 + 0.03 = 0.43
C. r ≤ 5
P (r ≤ 5) = 1
- P (r>5)
P (r ≤ 5) = 1
– 0.43
P (r ≤ 5) =
0.57
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