We are given
![N=\frac{11}{60} (F-32)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=N%3D%5Cfrac%7B11%7D%7B60%7D%20%28F-32%29)
Since, we have to solve for F
so, we will isolate F on anyone side
step-1:
Multiply both sides by 60
![60\times N=60\times \frac{11}{60} (F-32)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=60%5Ctimes%20N%3D60%5Ctimes%20%5Cfrac%7B11%7D%7B60%7D%20%28F-32%29)
![60N=11 (F-32)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=60N%3D11%20%28F-32%29)
step-2:
Divide both sides by 11
![\frac{60N}{11} =\frac{11(F-32)}{11}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B60N%7D%7B11%7D%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B11%28F-32%29%7D%7B11%7D)
![\frac{60}{11}N =F-32](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B60%7D%7B11%7DN%20%3DF-32)
step-3:
Add both sides by 32
![\frac{60}{11}N+32 =F-32+32](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B60%7D%7B11%7DN%2B32%20%3DF-32%2B32)
![\frac{60}{11}N+32 =F](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B60%7D%7B11%7DN%2B32%20%3DF)
so, we get
................Answer
Answer:
Here
Step-by-step explanation:
Just pick numbers and substitute it into the equation for x
6÷2=3
(C) is the correct awnswer
Skip/ Addy had 3 green marbles
The right method to use in order to represent the numerical data on the vertical axis of a Bar Chart is 0 to 40.
<h3>How do you set the vertical axis of a Bar Chart?</h3>
In setting the vertical axis of a Bar Chart, note that it is vital for the categories to be natural as possible.
That is, the vertical axis should always begin with the number zero (0) and the scale values for the x axis must range from the lowest value on the left hand side to highest on the right hand side.
Therefore, due to the explanation given, the right method to use in order to represent the numerical data on the vertical axis of a Bar Chart is 0 to 40 as it range from 0 to the highest value.
Learn more about Bar Chart from
brainly.com/question/24741444
#SPJ1
Answer:
P(X < 3) = 0.7443
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that the random variable X has a binomial distribution with the given probability of obtaining a success. Also, given n = 6, p = 0.3.
The above situation can be represented through Binomial distribution;
![P(X=r) = \binom{n}{r}p^{r} (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3Dr%29%20%3D%20%5Cbinom%7Bn%7D%7Br%7Dp%5E%7Br%7D%20%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-r%7D%20%3B%20x%20%3D%200%2C1%2C2%2C3%2C.....)
where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 6
r = number of success = less than 3
p = probability of success which in our question is 0.3.
LET X = a random variable
So, it means X ~ ![Binom(n=6, p=0.3)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Binom%28n%3D6%2C%20p%3D0.3%29)
Now, Probability that X is less than 3 = P(X < 3)
P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)
= ![\binom{6}{0}0.3^{0} (1-0.3)^{6-0}+ \binom{6}{1}0.3^{1} (1-0.3)^{6-1}+ \binom{6}{2}0.3^{2} (1-0.3)^{6-2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbinom%7B6%7D%7B0%7D0.3%5E%7B0%7D%20%281-0.3%29%5E%7B6-0%7D%2B%20%5Cbinom%7B6%7D%7B1%7D0.3%5E%7B1%7D%20%281-0.3%29%5E%7B6-1%7D%2B%20%5Cbinom%7B6%7D%7B2%7D0.3%5E%7B2%7D%20%281-0.3%29%5E%7B6-2%7D)
=
= 0.11765 + 0.30253 + 0.32414 = 0.7443
Therefore, P(X < 3) = 0.7443.