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slavikrds [6]
3 years ago
11

There is a spinner with 14 equal areas, numbered 1 through 14. If the spinner is spun one time, what is the probability that the

result is a multiple of 3 or a multiple of 2?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Brilliant_brown [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

There is a 11/14 chance that the result is a multiple of 3 or a multiple of 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the spinner is from 1 to 14, find all of the multiples of 3 and multiples of 2.

There are 4/14 multiples of 3 and 7/14 multiples of 2.

Add both of these numbers together 4/14 + 7/14 = 11/14

If this answer is correct, please make me Brainliest!

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bogdanovich [222]
The answer is B

Hope this helps :)
4 0
3 years ago
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To create a unique house paint color, Melton mixes together a sample that is 12 gallons of red, 2.5 gallons of yellow and 0.5 ga
Mariana [72]

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

total ratio is 15

gallons of red =

\frac{12}{15}  \times 6 \times  \frac{15}{0.5 }  \\  \\  = 144

gallons of yellow

30

gallons of blue

\frac{0.5}{15}  \times 30 \times  \frac{15}{2.5}  \\  \\  = 6

total =144+30+6

=180

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why is C the answer for this question?
Grace [21]

Step-by-step explanation:

A left Riemann sum approximates a definite integral as:

\int\limits^b_a {f(x)} \, dx \approx \sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}f(x_{k}) \Delta x \\where\ \Delta x = \frac{b-a}{n} \ and\ x_{k}=a+\Delta x \times (k-1)

Given ∫₂⁸ cos(x²) dx:

a = 2, b = 8, and f(x) = cos(x²)

Therefore, Δx = 6/n and x = 2 + (6/n) (k − 1).

Plugging into the sum:

∑₁ⁿ cos((2 + (6/n) (k − 1))²) (6/n)

Therefore, the answer is C.  Notice that answer D would be a right Riemann sum rather than a left (uses k instead of k−1).

8 0
3 years ago
What is the mode of the following set of numbers? 121, 347, 45, 21, 300, 614, 312, 333, 421 no mode 279.3 312 21
Lorico [155]
There is no mode. Hope this helps
5 0
3 years ago
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On average, Haley is able to read 4 5/6 Chapters in the her book each week . How many weeks will it take Haley to read 9 2/3 Cha
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

2 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

y = mx + b

y = total number of chapters read = 9\frac{2}{3}

m = number of chapters read per week = 4\frac{5}{6}

x = number of weeks = what we're solving for

b is not needed to find this solution

9\frac{2}{3} = 4\frac{5}{6} x                            divide 4\frac{5}{6} from both sides

x = 2 weeks

6 0
3 years ago
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