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inysia [295]
3 years ago
6

Find simple interest to the nearest cent for each principle, rate, and time. I= Prt. $1200, 3.9%, 2 years 6 months.

Mathematics
1 answer:
kykrilka [37]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

117.00

Step-by-step explanation:

I = prt  where i is the interest , p is the principal r is the rate and t is the time in years

2 years 6 months is 2.5 years

I = 1200 * .039* 2.5

I =117

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mylen [45]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the range is written as (min y value, max y value)

the domain is written as (min x value, max x value)

question 6

the min y value on the picture is -3, while the arrows point upward, so the max is infinity, so the domain is [-3,∞), with a bracket on -3 because -3 is included

[-3,∞)

question 7

the min x value is the leftmost point, which is at x = -3, while the max is the rightmost point at x = 3, and both are included in the domain so there should be brackets on both

[-3,3]

question 8

the arrow on the left points to the left and up infinitely, so the min is -∞, the arrow on the right points to the right and up infinitely, so the max x value is ∞

(-∞,∞)

question 9

the min value is the bottommost point at y = -2, and the arrow points upward infinitely so the max y value is ∞

[-2,∞)

question 10

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8 0
3 years ago
The distance between two villages is 0.625 km. Find the length in centimetres between the two villages on a map with a scale of
seropon [69]

Answer:

3125 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance between two villages is 0.625 km. Find the length in centimetres between the two villages on a map with a scale of 1:5000.

We are given the scale of

1: 5000

This means

1 km = 5000 cm

Hence:

1 km = 5000cm

0.625 km = x cm

Cross Multiply

x cm = 0.625 × 5000 cm

x cm = 3125 cm

Therefore, the length in centimetres between the two villages is 3125cm

5 0
3 years ago
If students’ scores were normally distributed and the mean was 200 with a standard deviation of 40, then what is the probability
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Answer:

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The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.

Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:

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4 0
3 years ago
Look at problem 4. Will three soccer balls weigh more than 1 kilogram Explain
alex41 [277]

Answer:Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
3 years ago
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