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Finger [1]
3 years ago
10

ASAP

Mathematics
2 answers:
Pie3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

36/-4

Step-by-step explanation:

A positive number divided by a negative number will<em> always </em> be negative, and a negative number divided by a positive number will <em>always </em>be negative!

Hope this helps!

ira [324]3 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Step 1:  Answer the questions</u>

36 / (-4)

-9 ← Negative

40 / 8

5

-42 / (-7)

6

12 / 4

3

Answer:  The first option, A

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Answer:

Future Value= $5,886.13

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Initial investment (PV)= $5,425

Number of periods (n)= 1 year

Interest rate (i)= 8.5% = 0.085

<u>To calculate the future value after one year, we need to use the following formula:</u>

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FV= PV*(1+i)^n

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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2 years ago
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3 years ago
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masha68 [24]

Answer:

This procedure does not result in a binomial distribution because in each trial there are more than two possible outcomes, that is, this problem cannot be simplified as a yes or no question.

Step-by-step explanation:

For the binomial probability distribution being satisfied, two things are necessary:

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Hope this helps!
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3 years ago
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