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saveliy_v [14]
3 years ago
7

A large-sample 95 percent confidence interval for the proportion of credit card customers that have reported fraudulent charges

on their account is (0.028, 0.086). What is the point estimate for the proportion of all credit card customers that have reported fraudulent charges on their account? (A) 0.029 (B) 0.057 (C) 0.058 (D) 0.114 (E) 0.196
Mathematics
1 answer:
Elden [556K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

Point estimate is always at the center of the interval.

You can find it by averaging the endpoints:

p(hat) = (0.028 + 0.086)/2 = 0.057

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HELP PLEASE.........​
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:   \bold{\dfrac{41}{80}}

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

\dfrac{puppies}{total}+\dfrac{kittens}{total}+\dfrac{unicorns}{total}\\\\\\=\dfrac{15}{80}+\dfrac{16}{80}+\dfrac{10}{80}\\\\\\=\large\boxed{\dfrac{41}{80}}

5 0
2 years ago
If tax revenues are not enough to cover budgeted expenses, the US government must
azamat

Answer:

sell stock

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
-3 1/2 - 2 1/3 explained
lakkis [162]
The answer is 5 5/6 simplified to the max.

rewrite the equation with separated parts

-3 1/2 - 2 1/3

-3 - 2 = -5

-1/2 - 1/3? u need to find the LEAST common denominator

-3/6 - 2/6 = -5/6

how did I get 6?

Rewriting input as fractions if necessary:
1/2, 1/3

For the denominators (2, 3) the least common multiple (LCM) is 6.

Therefore, the least common denominator (LCD) is 6.

Now lastly combine them total and its -5 - 5/6 = -5 5/6.


5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The probability of having a winning raffle ticket is 20%. If you bought 50 tickets, how many winning tickets should you expect t
Usimov [2.4K]
\frac{20}{100} = \frac{x}{50}
Let's solve for x:
100x=1000
Divide by 100
x=10
You should expect to win 10 times.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let X ~ N(0, 1) and Y = eX. Y is called a log-normal random variable.
Cloud [144]

If F_Y(y) is the cumulative distribution function for Y, then

F_Y(y)=P(Y\le y)=P(e^X\le y)=P(X\le\ln y)=F_X(\ln y)

Then the probability density function for Y is f_Y(y)={F_Y}'(y):

f_Y(y)=\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dy}F_X(\ln y)=\dfrac1yf_X(\ln y)=\begin{cases}\frac1{y\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}&\text{for }y>0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

The nth moment of Y is

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty y^nf_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_0^\infty y^{n-1}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}\,\mathrm dy

Let u=\ln y, so that \mathrm du=\frac{\mathrm dy}y and y^n=e^{nu}:

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu}e^{-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du

Complete the square in the exponent:

nu-\dfrac12u^2=-\dfrac12(u^2-2nu+n^2-n^2)=\dfrac12n^2-\dfrac12(u-n)^2

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac12(n^2-(u-n)^2)}\,\mathrm du=\frac{e^{\frac12n^2}}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du

But \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2} is exactly the PDF of a normal distribution with mean n and variance 1; in other words, the 0th moment of a random variable U\sim N(n,1):

E[U^0]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du=1

so we end up with

E[Y^n]=e^{\frac12n^2}

3 0
2 years ago
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