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3 years ago

Pls pls pls pls help

Mathematics

1 answer:

artcher [175]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

A. Reflection across the y-axis replaces each x coordinate with its opposite.

B. Rotation 90° CW does the transformation (x, y) ⇒ (y, -x)

C. This is a translation left 2 units.

D. Rotation 90° CCW does the transformation (x, y) ⇒ (-y, x)

E. This is a translation left 7 and down 2.

In the attached graphs, we have identified a point that is a corresponding point on each figure. This is so you can see how the various transformations move it and the rest of the figure in relation to it. 90° arcs are shown so you can see the rotations more easily.

The figures are labeled and color coded in accordance with the problem statement.

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(c) Jessica is training for the 400 meter relay race. She has trained three times this week and took 46, 52, and 54 seconds on h

cestrela7 [59]

Answer: 56 seconds or less

Step-by-step explanation:

3(46 + 52 + 54) $\leq$ 400 - x

Combine

3(152) $\leq$ 400 - x

Simplify

456 $\leq$ 400 - x

Subtract 456 from both sides

0 $\leq$ -56 - x

Add x to both sides

x $\leq$ 56 seconds

4 0

4 years ago

What is it multiplying by?<br><br><br>784.5, 78.45, 7.845,0.7845, 0.07845

katrin [286]

Answer:

10,100,1000,-10,-100,-1000

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

Write the quadratic equation in general form. What is the value of b2 - 4ac?

Readme [11.4K]

Answer:

b squared minus 4ac describes the discriminant which means the amount of solutions that the equation will have.

5 0

3 years ago

Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has

RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

FLAW TYPE2 NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1 0.015 0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW 0.01 0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) = p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) = 0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE the Bivariate Table;

FLAW TYPE2 NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1 0.015 0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW 0.01 0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3) probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) = p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% = 0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0

4 years ago

What is the ratio<br> a million to one

Angelina_Jolie [31]

One milion is 1000 thousand or 1,000,000

so million:one is 1,000,000:1

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers