i think the answer is 0.695652174
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that,
a)
X ~ Bernoulli
and Y ~ Bernoulli 
X + Y = Z
The possible value for Z are Z = 0 when X = 0 and Y = 0
and Z = 1 when X = 0 and Y = 1 or when X = 1 and Y = 0
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1 , then the probability mass function of the random variable Z takes on the value of 0 for any value of Z other than 0 and 1,
Therefore Z is a Bernoulli random variable
b)
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1
then,
or 
and 

c)
If both X = 1 and Y = 1 then Z = 2
The possible values of the random variable Z are 0, 1 and 2.
since a Bernoulli variable should be take on only values 0 and 1 the random variable Z does not have Bernoulli distribution
There's a key problem in this question compelling you to actually rewrite it like that! Mathematically that is inaccurate and incorrect. If you do 72(8+19) it seems as if you are going to do 8+19*72 as in algebra whatever is outside the bracket is bound to go multiplied so technically (8+19)+72 would make more sense and the answer is
Using bidmas do the brackets first
8+19= 27
27+72=99
Download photo math and it will let you take a picture of the equation and answer it for you
X - initial investment
8% - annual rate
x·=15,000,
so x = 10094.54
ANSWER: $10,094.57