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Pavlova-9 [17]
3 years ago
11

A company could improve its acid-test ratio by selling some equipment it no longer needs for cash. a. True b. Flase

Business
1 answer:
kari74 [83]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

true

Explanation:

acid test ratio can be calculate by ( Current assets – Inventory ) / Current liabilities. Ideally, the acid test ratio should be 1:1 or higher, however this varies widely by industry. In general, the higher the ratio, the greater the company's liquidity. by selling up equipment in exchange of cash, the will assist the company to be able to handle its current liability with the cash injection into the entity.

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Severe folate deficiency in adolescence can result in:
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It can result in many different symptoms including extreme fatigue, mouth sores, gray hair, tongue swelling, and growth problems.
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3 years ago
Petroski Natural Dying Corporation measures its activity in terms of skeins of yarn dyed. Last month, the budgeted level of acti
algol13

Answer:

$577 Unfavorable

Explanation:

The calculation of spending variance for dye costs is shown below:-

Spending variance for dye cost = (Standard rate - Actual variable) × Actual units

= ($0.67 - $13,910 ÷ 19,900) × 19,900

= (0.67 - 0.69899) × 19,900

= $577 Unfavorable

Therefore for computing the spending variance for dye costs we simply applied the above formula.

6 0
3 years ago
The purpose of having a minimum wage is to _____. a. Educate workers about what they could be making b. Guarantee that workers a
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer:

The purpose of having a minimum wage is to guarantee that workers are paid fairly and not exploited.

Answer:b

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The law of diminishing marginal utility states that the: Multiple choice question. marginal utility associated with the consumpt
Drupady [299]

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as more units of a good are consumed, the marginal utility from the consumption of the next unit becomes lesser. John's total utility from the consumption of two ice creams is 10, and his total utility from the consumption of three ice creams is 9.7.

<h3>What does the law of diminishing marginal utility State?</h3>
  • According to the law of declining marginal utility, when consumption rises, the marginal utility gained from each extra unit decreases, all other things being equal.
  • The incremental improvement in utility brought on by consuming one more unit is known as marginal utility.

<h3>Which law does the law of diminishing marginal utility affect?</h3>
  • According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, a good or service's marginal utility decreases the more of it is used by a person.
  • Consuming increasing quantities of a good gives economic actors less and less pleasure.

<h3>What is law of diminishing marginal returns?</h3>
  • According to the law of declining marginal returns, increasing the number of production factors leads to lesser increases in output.
  • The addition of any more of a production element after a certain level of capacity utilization would unavoidably result in lower per-unit incremental returns.

Learn more about diminishing marginal utility here:

brainly.com/question/13084220

#SPJ4

7 0
2 years ago
Your son is born today and you want to make him a millionaire by the time he is 50 years old. You deposit $50,000 in an investme
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

1000000= 50000 (1+ \frac{i}{1})^{1*50}

20 = (1+i)^{50}

20^{1/50} = 1+i

i = 20^{1/50} -1 = 0.0617

And if we convert this into % we got i = APR = 6.17 \%

See explanation below.

Explanation:

We assume that we have compounding interest.

For this case we can use the future value formula given by:

FV= PV (1+\frac{i}{n})^{nt}

Where:

FV represent the future value desired = 1000000

PV= represent the present value = 50000

i = the interest rate that we desire to find in fraction

n = number of times that the interest rate is compounding in 1 year, since the rate is annual then n=1

t = represent the number of years= 50 years

So then we have everything in order to replace and we got:

1000000= 50000 (1+ \frac{i}{1})^{1*50}

Now we can solve for the interest rate i like this:

20 = (1+i)^{50}

20^{1/50} = 1+i

i = 20^{1/50} -1 = 0.0617

And if we convert this into % we got i = APR = 6.17 \%

7 0
4 years ago
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