<span>Winning Probablity = 0.2, hence Losing Probability = 0.8
Probablity of winning atmost one time, that means win one and lose four times or lose all the times. So p(W1 or W0) = p (W1) + p(W0)
Winning once W1 is equal to L4, winning zero times is losing 5 times.
p(W1) = p(W1&L4) and this happens 5 times; p(W0) = p(L5);
p (W1) + p(W0) = p(L4) + p(L5)
p(L4) + p(L5) = (5 x 0.2 x 0.8^4) + (0.8^5) => 0.8^4 + 0.8^5
p(W1 or W0) = 0.4096 + 0.32768 = 0.7373</span>
Answer:
The total cost is $81.78
Step-by-step explanation:
First lets calculate the tip
tip = cost * percent of tip
tip = 65.42*.25
tip = 16.355
Which rounds to 16.36 since we are working with money and round to the nearest cent
total cost = cost of cut and blowout + tip
= 65.42 +16.36
=81.78
The answer is O f(x) =-35x+5
List all multipluesl of 10 tht are 2 digits
10
20
30
40
50
60
70
80
90
the ones that have a factor of 3 are
30,60,90
it could be 30 or 60 or 90
Find and graph the feasible region for the following constraints: x + y < 5. 2x<span> + y > 4 ... y = 10/3. x = 30/3 - 10/3 = 20/3. Intersects at (20/3, 10/3). -x + </span>2y<span> = 0. x - </span>2y = 0.