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2 years ago

Find the value of x m<2=4x+12

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sergeu [11.5K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

the angle 2 is equal to 52, because triangles add up to be 180, and 180 - 76 and divided by two is 52. 52 = 4x + 12. Divide both sides by four, then subtract 12. x = 1

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nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

n=3p

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1 year ago

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How many terms does the expression - 9+ 5.5 have? Explain.

melomori [17]

Answer:

there are two terms which means it is a binomial algebraic expression

Step-by-step explanation:

the first term is -9

and the second term is 5.5

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2 years ago

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Step-by-step explanation:

8.9x-5 and -6.8x+8

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2 years ago

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insens350 [35]

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3 years ago

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

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2 years ago