Answer:
64,9
Step-by-step explanation:
From my understanding the pattern would be:
Every other number is the next consecutive odd number,
( 1, 3, 5, 7 ) are all of the consecutive odds. (So the next odd is 9. )
That when we get to the part of where we get every other number for the remaining numbers, if you multiply the next even number by itself (square it).
4, 16, and 36 ( they are all perfect squares. )
They are the perfect squares of ( 2, 4, and 6) . So it makes sense that ( 8 ) is the next even number and you would square that and get ( 64 )
I hope this makes sense!!
Answer:
False.
Step-by-step explanation:
This is NOT an example of a binomial random variable, because a binomial random variable can only have TWO possible outcomes: success or failure. In the case of rolling a die, there are SIX possible outcomes: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6.
So, rolling a 6-sided die and counting the number of each outcome that occurs is NOT a binomial random variable.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
$146410
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula for calculating future value:
FV = P (1 + r)^n
FV = Future value
P = Present value
R = interest rate
N = number of years
100,000 x (1.1)^4 = $146410
Hey there!
Tim drives 300 kilometers.
Work: 80 x 3 = 240
Then, 45 minutes is 3/4 of an hour, so if you were to do 3/4 of 80 it is 60
Now, add 240 + 60 = 300
Hope I was able to help!
