The correct answer is c. market penetration
Answer:
you gave no answers to chose from. i would say using your fingers is not a good way to track your spending.
Explanation:
Answer:
a. True
Explanation:
from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.
risk free = 0.05
market rate = 0.12
premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07
beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0
Ke 0.05000
As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility
The answer to this question is Activity-Based Costing<span> (ABC)
</span>Activity-Based Costing<span> (ABC) is being done by assigning the manufacturing cost in a more structural and logical manner.
By doing this, The company will be able to provide a more accurate asessment on the cost that incurred by providing a certain product/services.</span>