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Crank
3 years ago
5

The straight-line depreciation method and the double-declining-balance depreciation method: Multiple Choice Are acceptable for t

ax purposes only. Produce the same book value each year. Are the only acceptable methods of depreciation for financial reporting. Produce the same total depreciation over an asset's useful life. Produce the same depreciation expense each year.
Business
1 answer:
fiasKO [112]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The straight-line depreciation method and the double-declining-balance depreciation method:

Produce the same total depreciation over an asset's useful life.

Explanation:

The straight-line and the double-declining-balance depreciation methods are two of the four depreciation methods allowed by US generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).  The other two methods are sum of the years' digit and units of production.  The straight-line method is calculated by subtracting the salvage value from the asset's cost and either dividing the depreciable amount by the number of years or applying a fixed rate on the depreciable amount.  For the double-declining-balance method, 100% is divided by the number of years of the asset's useful life and then multiplying by 2 to obtain the depreciation rate.  Depreciation expense is then calculated on the declining balance until the salvage value is left.  This is why they produce the same depreciation over the asset's useful life.

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One of your subordinate employees, Timothy, worked extra hours on Tuesday and Thursday so he could attend Ash Wednesday services
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

<u>D. Permitting Timothy to make up time lost due to the observance of religious practices is a reasonable religious accommodation.</u>

Explanation:

This statement is true in line with normal workplace ethics. Also, been his superior it would favor the company if Timothy is asked to make up time lost due to the observance of his religious practices.

A reasonable employer knows that his employees also have a constitutional right to freedom of worship, and would be flexible in the company policy on working hours.

5 0
4 years ago
The listing and selling brokers agree to split a 7% commission fifty-fifty on a $387,600 sale. The listing broker gives the list
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

4,748.1

Explanation:

the commission will be obtain by multiplying the commison fee rate by thje alue of the real state:

sales x commision fee

387,600 x 7% = 27,132‬

Now this is split 50%

27,132 / 2 = 13,566‬

We now thatthe selling broker gives 35% of his commision

sales fee:

65% salesperson

35% selling person

So the selling licensee will earn:

13,566/0.35 = 4,748.1

6 0
3 years ago
The risk-free rate of return is 6%, the expected rate of return on the market portfolio is 15%, and the stock of Xyrong Corporat
Doss [256]

Answer:

(i) $26.49375

(ii) $29.11

(iii) 52.54%

Explanation:

Required rate of return using CAPM model:

= risk free rate + beta (expected return - risk free rate)

= 0.06 + 2.3 (0.15 - 0.06)

= 0.267 or 26.7%

Growth rate = (1 - dividend payout ratio) × ROE

                    = (1 - 0.45) × 0.18

                    = 0.099 or 9.9%

a)

Dividends per share will be $4.05 since payout ratio is 45%

Intrinsic value of share = D1 ÷ (Rate - growth)

                                      = 4.05(1.099) ÷ (0.267 - 0.099)

                                      = 4.45095 ÷ 0.168

                                      = $26.49375

b)

Price after 1 year = 26.49( 1 + 0.099)

Price after 1 year = $29.11

c)

One year holding period return = ( $29.11 + 4.45 - 22) ÷ 22

                                                     = 0.5254 or 52.54%

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is true of a good survey about a particular industry?
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

C it has a broad sample , including peaple who know nothing about the industry

3 0
3 years ago
Because the liquidity-preference framework focuses on the:
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

B. Short run, it assumes the interest rate adjusts to bring the money market to equilibrium

Explanation:

This theory is explained to be a model that suggests that an investor should demand a higher interest rate or premium on securities with long-term maturities that carry greater risk because, all other factors being equal, investors prefer cash or other highly liquid holdings.

According to this theory, which was developed by John Maynard Keynes in support of his idea that the demand for liquidity holds speculative power, investments that are more liquid are easier to cash in for full value. Cash is commonly accepted as the most liquid asset. According to the liquidity preference theory, interest rates on short-term securities are lower because investors are not sacrificing liquidity for greater time frames than medium or longer-term securities.

8 0
3 years ago
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