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3 years ago

A group of students formed a circle during a game.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Nadya [2.5K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

C = circumference = 43.96

d = diameter = 14

C = $\pi d$

Divide both sides by d.

$\frac{C}{d} = \pi$

$\frac{43.96}{14}$ = $\pi$

3.14 $= \pi$

#teamtrees #WAP (Water And Plant)

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For a certain candy, 20% of the pieces are yellow, 15% are red, 20% are blue, 20% are green, and the rest are brown. a

OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question we are given the percentages of each of the types of candies in the bag except for brown. Since the sum of all the percentages equals 75% and brown is the remaining percent then we can calculate that brown is (100-75 = 25%) 25% of the bag. Now we can show the probabilities of getting a certain type of candy by placing the percentages over the total percentage (100%).

Brown: $\frac{25}{100}$
Yellow or Blue: $\frac{20}{100} +\frac{20}{100} = \frac{40}{100}$ ....add the numerators

Not Green: $\frac{80}{100}$ .... since the sum of all the rest is 80%

Stiped: $\frac{25}{100}$ .... there are 0 striped candies.

Assuming the <u><em>ratios/percentages</em></u> of the candies stay the same having an infinite amount of candy will not affect the probabilities. That being said in order to calculate consecutive probability of getting 3 of a certain type in a row we have to multiply the probabilities together. This is calculated by multiplying the numerators with numerators and denominators with denominators.

3 Browns: $\frac{25*25*25}{100*100*100} = \frac{15,625}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.5625}{100}$

the 1st and 3rd are red while the middle is any. We multiply 15% * (total of all minus red which is 85%) * 15% like so.

$\frac{15*85*15}{100*100*100} = \frac{19,125}{1,000,000} = \frac{1.9125}{100}$

None are Yellow: multiply the percent of all minus yellow three times.

$\frac{80*80*80}{100*100*100} = \frac{512,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{51.2}{100}$

At least 1 green: multiply the percent of green by 100% twice, since the other two can by any

$\frac{20*100*100}{100*100*100} = \frac{200,000}{1,000,000} = \frac{20}{100}$

4 0

3 years ago

Write 4.83…. (The 3 repeats infinitely)as a mixed number

kogti [31]

Answer:

$4\frac56$

Step-by-step explanation:

$\frac56=0.8 \dot{3}$

$\implies 4.8 \dot{3}=4\frac56$

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Trig help please!!! This is due tomorrow. If you don’t mind could you please explain how you do it

vivado [14]

Answer:

The larger acute angle is equal to 50.8 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve for both of the acute angles for the purpose of checking our work at the end with angle A being the top angle and angle B being the one on the base of the triangle (that's not the 90 degrees one). Determining whether to use sin/cos/tan comes from SOH-CAH-TOA.

A = cos^-1 (2√6/2√15)

However, you need to move the radical out of the denominator by multiplying √15 to the numerator and denominator. You should come up with (2√90)/30. So,

A = cos^-1 (2√90/30) = 50.768 degrees.

B = sin^-1 (2√90/30) = 39.231 degrees.

Now, we can check the work by adding the 2 angles to 90 and, if it comes to 180, it's right.

cos^-1 (2√90/30) + sin^-1 (2√90/30) + 90 = 180.

If you have any questions on where I got a formula or any step, feel free to ask in the comments!

8 0

3 years ago

Joe can type 60 words per minute how long will it take him to type 4800 words

andrey2020 [161]

It will take him 80 minutes, or an hour and 20 minutes

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Who can help me out on this please??

Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

4+6 does not equal 12 so there for it is incorrect

8 0

3 years ago