Answer:
Explanation:
please find the attached for the full explanation of the answer.
before answering the total current assets that will be recorded by Symphony one needs to understand what a current asset is. A current asset can be referred to a short term meaning that its span of life is short it can not be longer than 12 months hence current.
we also need to explain an asset: an item of property owned by a person or company, regarded as having value and available to meet debts, commitments, or legacies
0.013 is the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) for a natural disaster affecting an organization.
Annualised Rate of Occurrence (ARO): An expected frequency of the hazard occurring over the course of a year is known as the Annualised Rate of Occurrence (ARO). ALE is computed using ARO (annualized loss expectancy).
The annualised rate is applicable for a specific amount of time (less than 12 months). It is a mathematical extrapolation of an estimated yearly returns rate. In order to determine it, multiply the monthly change in returns rate by 12 to obtain the annual rate.
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Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
Complete question:
On January 1. Year 1. White Co. sold a property with a remaining useful life of 20 years to Blue Co. for $900.000. At the same time. White entered into a contract with Blue for the right to use the property (leaseback) for a period of 6 years. with annual rental payments of 580.000 that approximate the market rental payments for similar properties. On January 1. Year 1. the carrying amount of the property was 5680.000. and its fair value was 5770.000. A discount rate for the lease of 10% is used by both White and Blue. The present value factor for an ordinary annuity at 10% for 6 periods is 4.3553. The lease does not transfer the property to White at the end of the lease term and does not include a purchase option.
What amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1 ?
A. $0
B. $130,000
C. $90,000
D. $220,000
Answer:
$90,000 amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1
Explanation:
If the leaseback is known as an operating lease, the original transition to the buyer-lessor of the asset should be taken into account as the selling of an asset, given that all the income identification requirements have been fulfilled.
If the deal is of equal value, the lender lease is informed of the gain or loss of sale between the purchase price and the sum of the land that is held. Yet this is not a equal value trade. The property's sale price is higher than its market value. Accordingly, the income or loss on sale seems to be the difference between the equal worth and the value of the land.
Therefore, on 1 January, White records a benefit of $90,000 in revenue of $770,000 (fair value of $680,000 in carrying amounts)
Answer:
Ricardo’s Theory of Comparative Advantage
Explanation:
Comparative advantage is the term used to define the ability of an individual, firm or country to produce a particular good or service at a lower opportunity cost than that if it’s competitors or trade partners. Opportunity cost is the benefit lost from the second best alternative.
When a country can produce a product more efficiently (i.e maximum output using minimum resources) than that of its trade partners, it is known as that it has absolute advantage in that product. India tends to have absolute advantage in both business processes outsourcing as well as producing agricultural commodities as it is mentioned that it can produce both of these more efficiently than the United States.
However, although it has absolute advantage in both, it is still less efficient in producing agricultural commodities when compared to business process outsourcing. In other words, if it attempts to produce agricultural commodities in-house, the benefit lost from the second best alternative: business process outsourcing is high. The opportunity cost is higher when it produces agricultural commodities than it is when it does business process outsourcing. Hence, due to the law of comparative advantage, it chooses to specialize in business process outsourcing and imports agricultural commodities.