The price of elasticity of the product maybe considered inelastic since there is little to no responsiveness to the change in price of the product. A factor or reason can be that it is a necessity so persons still have to buy the product no matter the change in price.
It is much easier to increase government spending, because it gives a temporary boost, whereas decreasing it would take away the benefits you had before, and might mess up other "things" that relied on that part you just removed to decrease government spending.
Full Definition<span> of </span>renewal<span>.
1 : the act or process of </span>renewing<span> : repetition.
2 : the quality or state of being </span>renewed<span>.
Hope that this helps you! =)</span>
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:
(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;
(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;
(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;
(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and
(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.
Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True
