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kirza4 [7]
2 years ago
9

The pairs of numbers below represent the price of different

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ymorist [56]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option C: 2 books for $14, 5 books for $35

Step-by-step explanation:

A proportional relationship between two quantities would always have a constant of proportionality. Thus,

Constant of proportionality, k = y/x

In this case,

x = quantity of books

y = price

Let's see which pair will have a constant of proportionality:

Option A: 4 books for $24,8 books for $40

24/4 = 6;

40/8 = 5.

No constant of proportionality.

Option B: 5 books for $25, 6 books for $36

25/5 = 5

36/6 = 6

No constant of proportionality.

Option C: 2 books for $14, 5 books for $35

14/2 = 7

35/5 = 7

Constant of proportionality, k = 7.

This pair represents a proportional relationship.

Option D: 3 books for $15, 7 books for $28

15/3 = 5

28/7 = 4

No constant of proportionality.

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Which of the following is not a correct factorization of the binomial 10x2 + 40x ?
meriva
B. To be careful, use brackets: 10(1*2) + 4x which will be 20 + 40x or as you have it, 10*2 + 40x.
5 0
3 years ago
Prove for any positive integer n, n^3 +11n is a multiple of 6
suter [353]

There are probably other ways to approach this, but I'll focus on a proof by induction.

The base case is that n = 1. Plugging this into the expression gets us

n^3+11n = 1^3+11(1) = 1+11 = 12

which is a multiple of 6. So that takes care of the base case.

----------------------------------

Now for the inductive step, which is often a tricky thing to grasp if you're not used to it. I recommend keeping at practice to get better familiar with these types of proofs.

The idea is this: assume that k^3+11k is a multiple of 6 for some integer k > 1

Based on that assumption, we need to prove that (k+1)^3+11(k+1) is also a multiple of 6. Note how I've replaced every k with k+1. This is the next value up after k.

If we can show that the (k+1)th case works, based on the assumption, then we've effectively wrapped up the inductive proof. Think of it like a chain of dominoes. One knocks over the other to take care of every case (aka every positive integer n)

-----------------------------------

Let's do a bit of algebra to say

(k+1)^3+11(k+1)

(k^3+3k^2+3k+1) + 11(k+1)

k^3+3k^2+3k+1+11k+11

(k^3+11k) + (3k^2+3k+12)

(k^3+11k) + 3(k^2+k+4)

At this point, we have the k^3+11k as the first group while we have 3(k^2+k+4) as the second group. We already know that k^3+11k is a multiple of 6, so we don't need to worry about it. We just need to show that 3(k^2+k+4) is also a multiple of 6. This means we need to show k^2+k+4 is a multiple of 2, i.e. it's even.

------------------------------------

If k is even, then k = 2m for some integer m

That means k^2+k+4 = (2m)^2+(2m)+4 = 4m^2+2m+4 = 2(m^2+m+2)

We can see that if k is even, then k^2+k+4 is also even.

If k is odd, then k = 2m+1 and

k^2+k+4 = (2m+1)^2+(2m+1)+4 = 4m^2+4m+1+2m+1+4 = 2(2m^2+3m+3)

That shows k^2+k+4 is even when k is odd.

-------------------------------------

In short, the last section shows that k^2+k+4 is always even for any integer

That then points to 3(k^2+k+4) being a multiple of 6

Which then further points to (k^3+11k) + 3(k^2+k+4) being a multiple of 6

It's a lot of work, but we've shown that (k+1)^3+11(k+1) is a multiple of 6 based on the assumption that k^3+11k is a multiple of 6.

This concludes the inductive step and overall the proof is done by this point.

6 0
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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
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Butoxors [25]

Answer: No solution

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter= 2(length) + 2(width)

If they have the same perimeter than we can write their values as an equation like this:

2(10) + 2x = 2(6) + 2(x + 3)

20 + 2x = 12 + 2(x+3)

DISTRIBUTE THE 2 TO THE X AND THE 3

20 + 2x = 12 + 2x + 6

COMBINE LIKE TERMS

20 + 2x = 18 + 2x

SUBTRACT 2X FROM BOTH SIDES

20 = 18

<u>THE EQUATION HAS NO SOLUTION, AND YOU ARE CORRECT</u>

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The difference of 9 and the quotient of the number t and 6 is 5
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The answer should be t=-24

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