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Maslowich
3 years ago
13

Is 2/8 equivalent to 3/12 Btw i suck at math HELP MEE​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Scilla [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

mina [271]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

2/8 3 /12 both equals 24

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Please help!!!!!!!!!!!
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

x in terms of     b = -3/b

x when b is 3    x = -1

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What is the cosine (3x)
tekilochka [14]
The formula is 4 cos^3(x)-3 cos(x)
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3 years ago
The formula for calculating simple interest is I = prt. Which is the equivalent equation solved for r? l/pt=r pt/l=r l-pt=r l+pt
Nadya [2.5K]

I = PRT is the formula for interest, and we need to solve it for R. Since all three of P, R, and T are multiplied, we send things to the other side of the equals through dividing.

I = PRT

I / P = RT to divide both sides by P

I / PT = R to divide both sides by T

So I / PT = R (the first choice) is the equation solved for R.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And using the complement rule we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

7 0
3 years ago
I need the answer to this equation 2x + 8 = 2x -3 as soon as possible doing a tesst
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Ppshdh. Skdjjs. Jshfbn.
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