Answer:
$17,277.07
Step-by-step explanation:
Present value of annuity is the present worth of cash flow that is to be received in the future, if future value is known, rate of interest is r and time is n then PV of annuity is
PV of annuity = ![\frac{P[1-(1+r)^{-n}]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BP%5B1-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%5D%7D%7Br%7D)
= ![\frac{3000[1-(1+0.10)^{-9}]}{0.10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3000%5B1-%281%2B0.10%29%5E%7B-9%7D%5D%7D%7B0.10%7D)
= ![\frac{3000[1-(1.10)^{-9}]}{0.10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3000%5B1-%281.10%29%5E%7B-9%7D%5D%7D%7B0.10%7D)
= ![\frac{3000[1-0.4240976184]}{0.10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3000%5B1-0.4240976184%5D%7D%7B0.10%7D)
= 
= 
= 17,277.071448 ≈ $17,277.07
First,
149,500 * .10 = 14,950
149,500 - 14,950 = 134,550
then,
134,550 * .05 = 6727.50
134,550 - 6727 = 127,822.55
127,822.50 * .04 = 5112.90
trade discount = 14950 + 6727.50 + 5112.90
26790.40
hope this help
(1,10)(-3,2)
slope = (2-10) / (-3-1) = -8/-4 = 2
y = mx + b
slope(m) = 2
(1,10)...x = 1 and y = 10
now we sub and solve for b, the y int
10 = 2(1) + b
10 = 2 + b
10 - 2 = b
8 = b
equation is : y = 2x + 8.....or 2x - y = -8
Answer:
It is none of the above. The actual answer is 215
Step-by-step explanation:
8.6*50/2=215
first divide 7(becauae there's 7days in a week) into 35
then you get 5
so multiply 5 by 3 and you get 15
so 15cm the seedling will.grow
