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3 years ago

If 9×4 =36 does 9×4+5=36+6

1 answer:

4 0

Answer:

No.

Explanation:

If you did the order of operations, you would get:

41 = 42.

Which isn’t true because they’re both a number away from being equal to each other.

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The function f(x) = x^2 is reflected across the x-axis and a stretch factor of 4 is applied to create a second function, g(x). W

Anon25 [30]

C. The vertexes are the same. The functions' vertex (h,k) values were not altered, just a (stretch/compress).

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3 years ago

A dilation with a scale factor of 4 is applied to the three line segments shown. The resulting images are P'Q', A'B', and M'N' D

alexira [117]

Answer:

1st into the 3rd 2nd into 1st 3rd into 3rd

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

A triangle has side lengths of 13 in, 29 in, and 30 in. Classify it as acute, obtuse, or right.

kenny6666 [7]

Acute

Angle ∠ A = α = 25.385° = 25°23'6″ = 0.443 rad

Angle ∠ B = β = 73.004° = 73°14″ = 1.274 rad

Angle ∠ C = γ = 81.611° = 81°36'41″ = 1.424 rad

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2 years ago

Show tan(???? − ????) = tan(????)−tan(????) / 1+tan(????) tan(????)<br> .

anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

See the proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we need to proof the following identity:

$tan(x-y) = \frac{tan(x) -tan(y)}{1+ tan(x) tan(y)}$

We need to begin with the definition of tangent:

$tan (x) =\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}$

So we can replace into our formula and we got:

$tan(x-y) = \frac{sin(x-y)}{cos(x-y)}$ (1)

We have the following identities useful for this case:

$sin(a-b) = sin(a) cos(b) - sin(b) cos(a)$

$cos(a-b) = cos(a) cos(b) + sin (a) sin(b)$

If we apply the identities into our equation (1) we got:

$tan(x-y) = \frac{sin(x) cos(y) - sin(y) cos(x)}{sin(x) sin(y) + cos(x) cos(y)}$ (2)

Now we can divide the numerator and denominato from expression (2) by $\frac{1}{cos(x) cos(y)}$ and we got this:

$tan(x-y) = \frac{\frac{sin(x) cos(y)}{cos(x) cos(y)} - \frac{sin(y) cos(x)}{cos(x) cos(y)}}{\frac{sin(x) sin(y)}{cos(x) cos(y)} +\frac{cos(x) cos(y)}{cos(x) cos(y)}}$

And simplifying we got:

$tan(x-y) = \frac{tan(x) -tan(y)}{1+ tan(x) tan(y)}$

And this identity is satisfied for all:

$(x-y) \neq \frac{\pi}{2} +n\pi$

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3 years ago

I need help almost ASAP!!! 1-5

alekssr [168]

1. $325 2. $315,000 3.$2,600 4.$6,00 5.i don’t know

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers