<span>Sherman Antitrust Act reflected Congress's
desire to lessen or limit the ability of big businesses to dominate the
economy, its purpose was to limit not entirely end the ability. The Congress
justified its passage of the Sherman Antitrust Act on the grounds of its power
given by the constitution to regulate the commerce between various states. </span>
Phone, Money, Transportation....
I'd say A because in other countries people didnt have freedom or rights
Answer:
Britain had an elite society that welcomed industrialization while Russia did not.
Explanation:
British elites were open to the idea of investing into railways and factories. Politically, the British also had a parliament that allowed some form of representation in the government. There was also no more serfdom at the time of industrialization in the early 1800s. On the other hand, Russian elites were very opposed to investing or industrialization as this could threaten their wealth that they already accumulated. Serfdom was still legal in Russia until March 3 1861 when Alexander II abolished it, which meant that many peasants were tied to the land and could not migrate to urban areas. Furthermore, Russia was fully autocratic unlike Britian and only saw the implementation of a parliament in 1905. All of this meant that Britain's industrialization was very quick and significantly earlier than Russia's.
