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Alla [95]
3 years ago
8

What is the present value of the following series of cash flows discounted at 12 percent:

Business
1 answer:
Ksju [112]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The present value of the following series of cash flows discounted at 12 percent is:

$171,890

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Discount rate = 12%

$40,000 now;

$50,000 at the end of the first year;

$0 at the end of year the second year;

$60,000 at the end of the third year; and

$70,000 at the end of the fourth year

Future Value  Discount Factor   Present Value

$40,000                 1                      $40,000

$50,000                 0.893             $44,650

$0                           0.797              $0

$60,000                 0.712              $42,720

$70,000                 0.636             $44,520

Total present value                      $171,890

b) The present value is the discounted cash flow from series of future cash flows.  The discount factor is applied to the individual cash flows, based on the number of years before the cash flow occurs.

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Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

C. an open-end fund

Explanation:

An open end fund also known as mutual fund is a diversified investment portfolio that does not have a limit in terms of shares that can be issued. In an open end fund, when shares are purchased by investors, more shares are created likewise shares are taken out of circulation when they are sold.

Majority of open end funds - mutual funds can issue new shares at all times as per response to the demand by investors. Shares bought and sold in open end fund are priced daily based on their current net asset value (NAV) . Example of open end funds are hedge funds, mutual funds, exchange traded funds (ETFs)/etc.

7 0
3 years ago
Calculate the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank with: a. Cash of $20 million, 0% b. Gen. Obligation municipal security of $100
Ulleksa [173]
This is what i found  Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier 2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15 million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925 million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37 million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925 million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from 8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael & Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
 
4 0
3 years ago
The firm projects a rapid growth of 40 percent for the next two years and then a growth rate of 20 percent for the following two
il63 [147K]

Answer:

The price of the stock today is $15.63

Explanation:

The three stage Dividend Discount model will be used to calculate the price of this stock as the dividends are growing at three different growth rates. These dividends will be discounted back to calculate the price of the stock today.

The price per share today under this model will be:

P0 = D1 / (1+r) + D2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + Dn / (1+r)^n + [Dn * (1+gC) / (r - gC)] / (1+r)^n

Where,

  • D1 is the dividend expected for the next period of Year 1.
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P0 = 1.25 / (1+0.2)  +  1.25 * (1+0.4) / (1+0.2)^2  +  1.25 * (1+0.4) * (1+0.2) / (1+0.2)^3  +  1.25 * (1+0.4) * (1+0.2)^2  /  (1+0.2)^4  +  

[1.25 * (1+0.4) * (1+0.2)^2 * (1+0.08)  /  (0.2 - 0.08)]  /  (1+0.2)^4

The P0 = $15.625 rounded off to $15.63

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Output: Transnet has the ability to decide the quantity of their output and they have many competitors on this one.

<span>Profit: Transnet might be able to increase their profit but in a competition it would be hard because customers might switch to the competitor. </span>
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3 years ago
Giả sử anh/chị đang chuẩn bị thành lập một doanh nghiệp kinh doanh về một/hoặc một số sản phẩm trong một lĩnh vực. Hãy xây dựng
Fofino [41]

Pls type in english... Question not understandable

3 0
3 years ago
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