Answer:
the answer would be (-4,-6)
Step-by-step explanation:
hope this helps ya
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Answer:
Lets say that P(n) is true if n is a prime or a product of prime numbers. We want to show that P(n) is true for all n > 1.
The base case is n=2. P(2) is true because 2 is prime.
Now lets use the inductive hypothesis. Lets take a number n > 2, and we will assume that P(k) is true for any integer k such that 1 < k < n. We want to show that P(n) is true. We may assume that n is not prime, otherwise, P(n) would be trivially true. Since n is not prime, there exist positive integers a,b greater than 1 such that a*b = n. Note that 1 < a < n and 1 < b < n, thus P(a) and P(b) are true. Therefore there exists primes p1, ...., pj and pj+1, ..., pl such that
p1*p2*...*pj = a
pj+1*pj+2*...*pl = b
As a result
n = a*b = (p1*......*pj)*(pj+1*....*pl) = p1*....*pj*....pl
Since we could write n as a product of primes, then P(n) is also true. For strong induction, we conclude than P(n) is true for all integers greater than 1.
30,240
60x24=1440x7=10,080x3= 30,240
-40/80 = -1/2
since when you’re multiplying fraction, you multiply the top by the top number and bottom by the bottom number. So -4 • 10 is -40 and 5 • 16 is 80. -40/80, simplified is -1/2.
