Answer:
Yes. g⁻¹(x) = f(x).
Step-by-step explanation:
Let y = ∛x - 1.
Rearrange to solve for x:
y+1 = ∛x
(y+1)³ = x
Swap x and y:
(x+3)³ = y
g⁻¹(x) = (x+3)³ = f(x)
Answer:
see the formula in book
Step-by-step explanation:
change the first 2 brackets into cos sin like that
then after,change both into another formula
sin theta plus cos theta will come ans
The value of (f-g)(x) is x + 14.
<h3>What is Function?</h3>
A function is a process or a relation that associates each element 'a' of a non-empty set A , at least to a single element 'b' of another non-empty set B.
Here, given function;
f(x) = 3x + 10 and g(x) = 2x - 4
Now,
(f - g)(x) = f(x) - g(x)
= (3x + 10) - (2x - 4)
= 3x + 10 - 2x + 4
= (3x - 2x) + (10 + 4)
(f - g)(x) = x + 14
Thus, the value of (f-g)(x) is x + 14.
Learn more about Function from:
brainly.com/question/12431044
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46 is the outlier. its wayy larger then the others, and will affect the average. see, when you add everything together you wont be dividing by 46, youre dividing by the amount of numbers. for explanation, i would put that your boss was trying to fire you in the nicest way possible and that was why the email was so big
Answer:
Answer is B!
Step-by-step explanation:
58 * 20 = 1160
0+160= 160
160+1000=1160
