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maria [59]
3 years ago
15

Tanning Company analyzes its receivables to estimate bad debt expense. The accounts receivable balance is $362,000 and credit sa

les are $1,000,000. An aging of accounts receivable shows that approximately 4% of the outstanding receivables will be uncollectible. What adjusting entry will Tanning Company make if Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $2,400 before adjustment
Business
1 answer:
irakobra [83]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Bad debt expenses                          $ 12,080

Allowance for doubtful accounts                           $ 12,080

Explanation:

Accounts  4% of AR

That is  $362,000 x 4% = $14,480 expected allowance.

The current balance = 2400 credit

<u>Journal entry:</u>

\text{Account titles and explanation}                                Debit                   Credit

Bad debt expenses [(362,000 x 4%) - 2400]        $12,080

\text{Allowance for doubtful accounts}                                                         $12,080

(To record bad debt expense)

                           

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Micropreneurs are exempt from the local ordinances that restrict home-based businesses from operating in residential areas.false

3 0
3 years ago
Is Universal Social Charge, Income tax or Consumer tax? ​
skelet666 [1.2K]

Answer:

income tax

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The May transactions of Hanschu Corporation were as follows.
romanna [79]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are as follows:

On May 4

Account  payable $600

        To cash $600

(Being cash paid is recorded)

On May 7

Account  receivable $6,500  

       To service revenue $6,500

(being service on account is recorded)

On May 8

Supplies $800  

       To Account payable $800

(being supplies purchased on account)

On May 9

Equipment $1,000  

        To cash $1,000

(being cash paid)

On May 17

Salary expense $500

         To cash $500

(being cash paid)

On May 22

Repair expense $800  

        To Account payable $800

(Being received bill for repairing of an equipment is recorded)

On May 27

Prepaid rent $1,100

         To cash  $1,100

(Being cash paid is recorded)

5 0
2 years ago
Angus Bank holds no excess reserves but complies with the reserve requirement. The required reserves ratio is 8​%, and reserves
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

$3.68 million

Explanation:

Reserve Ratio = 8%

Reserves are currently = ​$25 million

Amount of deposits = ​$ 312.5 million

Deposit outflow = ​$4 million

Remaining Deposits =  Amount of deposits - Deposit outflow

                                  = $ 312.5 million - $4 million

                                  = $308.5 million

Current Required Reserve after outflow of deposits(CR):

= $25 million - ​$4 million

= $21 million

Therefore,

Shortage of Reserve = CR - (Remaining Deposits × Reserve Ratio)

                                   = $21 - ($308.5 × 0.08)

                                   = $21 - $24.68

                                   = -($3.68)

Therefore, the reserve shortage created by a deposit outflow of ​$4 million is ​$3.68 million

3 0
3 years ago
1. A new furnace for your small factory will cost $27,000 to install and will require ongoing maintenance expenditures of $1,500
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

payback 3.29 years

NPV 87,158.55

Explanation:

PO 27,000

<u>Cash flow saving Y1 </u>

2400 x 3.5 = 8,400

expenditures (1,500)

net savings   6,900

<u>Cash flow saving Y2 </u>

The price will increase 0.5

6,900 + 2,400 x 0.5 = 8,100

<u>Cash flow saving Y3 to Y20</u>

The price will increase 0.5

8,100 + 2,400 x 0.5 = 9,300

We have an annuity of 18 years for 9,300 cash

And then we have a cash flow of 6,900

and another of 8,100

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C = 9,300

r = 8%

time = 18

9,300 \times \frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-18} }{0.08} = PV\\

PV =  87,158.55

Now this values are years into the future, so we need to bring them to present day.

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

year 1 principal 6,900

6,900/1.08 = 6,388.89

year 2 principal 8,100

\frac{8,100}{(1 + 0.08)^{2} } = PV

PV= 5,915.64

year 3 annuity 87,158.55

\frac{87,158.55}{(1 + 0.08)^{3} } = PV

PV= 69,189.27

cash flow - investment = net present value

69,189.27 + 5,915.64 + 6,388.89 - 27,000 = 54,493.8

The payback will be the time perdion when the project recovers it initial cost:

we first add the income from the irregular years and subtract from the investment

6,900 + 8,100 = 15,000

27,000 - 15,000 = 12,000

then we use the general formula investment/cash flow per year

12,000/9,300 = 1.29

the project need the first two years and then 1.29 years

2 + 1.29 = 3.29 years

6 0
3 years ago
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