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Ratling [72]
3 years ago
10

Please help me I really need it​

Mathematics
2 answers:
jeyben [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

15 grams .

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to multiply the percentage as a decimal (0.30) with the amount of chocolate (50 g):

0.30*50 = 15 g

There are 15 grams of cocoa in the chocolate bar.  

notka56 [123]3 years ago
6 0
<h3>Answer:  15 grams of cocoa</h3>

Work Shown:

30% = 30/100 = 0.30

30% of 50 = 0.30*50 = 15

Here's another way to think about it: If we had 100 grams of chocolate and 30% are cocoa, then we have 30 grams of cocoa by definition of what percentage means. Divide the 100 in half to get 50, so we'll have to divide the 30 in half to get 15.

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WILL MARK BRAINLIEST AND 23 POINTS
Lubov Fominskaja [6]
The surface area, I believe, is 584,064.

Broken down, the formula is really 312 x 312 x 6

312 x 312 = 97,344     97,344 x 6 = 584,064......... There is your answer.

SA = 584,064
8 0
4 years ago
The cost for the raw materials of marble countertops, C s can be represented by the function c(a) = 4.25a , where a is the area
tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

m(c(a)) = 4.8875a can be used to find the marked-up price of a marble countertop depending on the area

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that The cost for the raw materials of marble countertops, C s can be represented by the function c(a) = 4.25a --------1

a =  area of the countertops.

we are also given that The retail markup, m, can be represented by the function m(c) = 1.15c.

We are supposed to find  function can be used to find the marked-up price of a marble countertop depending on the area?

Marked up price function : m(c) = 1.15c.

Substitute the value of c form 1

Marked up price function of a marble countertop depending on the area:

m(c(a))=1.15(4.25 a)

m(c(a))= 4.8875 a

So, Option 1 is true

Hence m(c(a)) = 4.8875a can be used to find the marked-up price of a marble countertop depending on the area

5 0
3 years ago
Round off 11.25 to the nearest hundred to the nearest cent
TEA [102]
11.25 is rounded to 11.30

5 0
3 years ago
An urn contains three red balls and four blue balls. Draw two balls at random from the urn, without replacement. Compute the exp
mezya [45]

Step-by-step explanation:

in total we have 3+4 = 7 balls.

when we draw the first ball, the probability to draw a red ball is 3/7, and a blue ball 4/7.

when we draw the second ball, we have now only 6 balls in total.

the probabilty to draw a red back now depends also on the result of the first draw.

if the first ball was already red, then we have only a chance now of 2 out of 6.

if the first ball was blue, then we have now a chance of 3 out of 6.

so, the probably to draw at least 1 red ball in 2 draws is the probability of drawing one on the first draw plus the probability of drawing one on the second :

1 - probability to see 2 blue balls

1 - 4/7 × 3/6 = 1 - 12/42 = 30/42 = 0.714285714...

the expected number of red balls in 2 draws is

1 red in first red in first red in second

but not second and second but not first

1×(3/7 × 4/6) + 2×(3/7 × 2/6) + 1×(4/7 × 3/6) = 12/42 + 12/42 + 12/42 = 36/42 = 6/7 = 0.857142857 ≈ 0.8571

7 0
3 years ago
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Llana [10]

Answer:A polynomial added to a polynomial also still gives a polymonial

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