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Mathematics

2 answers:

RideAnS [48]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

ضع رأسك على كتفي ~ Its so cool that you speak arabic i speak a little bit

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope you have a good day and summer!

Can i have brainliest please also? i need one to level up my ranking on here

Arada [10]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

i need help how to progress cozy

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

A distributor receives a large shipment of components. Thedistributor would like to accept the shipment if 10% or fewer ofthe co

posledela

Answer:

a. 0.2639 or 26.39%

b. 0.6242 or 62.42%

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem can be treated as a binomial model with probability of success p = proportion of defectives in the batch.

Number of trials (n) = 10.

For any number of successes 'k', the probability is:

$P(X=k) = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}*p^k*(1-p)^{n-k}$

a. If p =0.10, what is P(x >1):

$P(X>1) = 1- P(X=0)-P(X=1)\\P(X>1) =1- \frac{10!}{(10-0)!0!}*0.10^0*(1-0.10)^{10-0}- \frac{10!}{(10-1)!1!}*0.10^1*(1-0.10)^{10-1}\\P(X>1) = 1-0.348678-0.287420\\P(X>1) =0.2639$

The probability is 0.2639 or 26.39%.

b. If p =0.20, what is P(x >1):

$P(X>1) = 1- P(X=0)-P(X=1)\\P(X>1) =1- \frac{10!}{(10-0)!0!}*0.20^0*(1-0.20)^{10-0}- \frac{10!}{(10-1)!1!}*0.20^1*(1-0.20)^{10-1}\\P(X>1) = 1-0.107374-0.268435\\P(X>1) =0.6242$

The probability is 0.6242 or 62.42%.

5 0

3 years ago

Fill in the missing number. 40% of = 800

katrin [286]

Answer:

40% of 800 is 320

Step-by-step explanation:

0.40×800=320

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The graph of f(x) = (0.5)x is replaced by the graph of g(x) = (0.5)x − k. If g(x) is obtained by shifting f(x) down by 5 units,

raketka [301]

5. The value of k is the same of b in the original linear equation formula (y=mx+b). The b (or k here) changes where the equation itself fits on the graph. If a +0 is replaced with a -5, then the equation is shifted down by five units. I've graphed it below for you (where f(x) is in red and g(x) is in blue). Hope this helps!