Probability hit=40%=4/10
probability no hit=1-p (hit)=1-4/10=6/10
probability= p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p(hit)+p (no hit)+p (no hit)+p (no hit)
probability=4/10×4/10×4/10×4/10×4/10×6/10×6/10×6/10
=0.0022
( I think but I'm not 100% sure)
Answer:
There is an 84.97% probability that at least six wear glasses.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each adult over 50, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they wear glasses, or they do not. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this problem.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
In this problem we have that:
What is the probability that at least six wear glasses?
There is an 84.97% probability that at least six wear glasses.
Answer:
Hello There!
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Your answer would be (D) 15
Hope this helped you! Brainliest would be nice!
( Sorry I would ad the Step-by-step explanation but I'm in a rush!)
The identity property. the same applies for n*1=n.
(x^2+1)(x+2)(x −2)
*ps the ^ means it’s a exponent
Hope I helped <3 sorry if I was wrong :(