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Bingel [31]
3 years ago
15

What percentage of americans get no exercise in a day

Physics
2 answers:
vazorg [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

95%

Explanation:

blagie [28]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

0%

Explanation:

im not sure kasi i dont understand the question.....

You might be interested in
Please help i need it to be answered by tomorrow may 1st i’m very frustrated
butalik [34]

Answer: At least one of his parents had brown eyes

Explanation: whoever had the brown eyes he got more genetics from them when it came to his eyes  

8 0
3 years ago
The motor winds in the cable with a constant acceleration, such that the 20-kg crate moves a distance s = 6 m in 3 s, starting f
Marta_Voda [28]

Answer:

85 N

Explanation:

Given that crate mass = 20kg

Distance = 6m

Time = 3 seconds

Coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.3

We begin by calculating for acceleration

Which was gotten as 1.33 m/s sq

SEE THE ATTACHEMENT FOR DETAILS

8 0
4 years ago
A circular loop of flexible iron wire has an initial circumference of 164cm , but its circumference is decreasing at a constant
Travka [436]

Answer:

emf = 0.02525 V

induced current with a counterclockwise direction

Explanation:

The emf is given by the following formula:

emf=-\frac{\Delta \Phi_B}{\Delta t}=-B\frac{\Delta A}{\Delta t}\ \ =-B\frac{A_2-A_1}{t_2-t_1}   (1)

ФB: magnetic flux =  BA

B: magnitude of the magnetic field = 1.00T

A2: final area of the loop; A1: initial area

t2: final time, t1: initial time

You first calculate the final A2, by taking into account that the circumference of loop decreases at 11.0cm/s.

In t = 4 s the final circumference will be:

c_2=c_1-(11.0cm/s)t=164cm-(11.0cm/s)(4s)=120cm

To find the areas A1 and A2 you calculate the radius:

r_1=\frac{164cm}{2\pi}=26.101cm\\\\r_2=\frac{120cm}{2\pi}=19.098cm

r1 = 0.261 m

r2 = 0.190 m

Then, the areas A1 and A2 are:

A_1=\pi r_1^2=\pi (0.261m)^2=0.214m^2\\\\A_2=\pi r_2^2=\pi (0.190m)^2=0.113m^2

Finally, the emf induced, by using the equation (1), is:

emf=-(1.00T)\frac{(0.113m^2)-(0.214m^2)}{4s-0s}=0.0252V=25.25mV

The induced current has counterclockwise direction, because the induced magneitc field generated by the induced current must be opposite to the constant magnetic field B.

4 0
3 years ago
4. A family leaves from New York City and is flying to Los Angles which is 2800mi away. It takes
Blizzard [7]

The average speed of the whole travel is equal to <u>400 mph</u>.

Why?

From the statement, we know that whole travel is divided into three parts. For the first part (traveling from New York to Chicago), we have that it was 3.25 hours and the covered distance was half of the total distance (1400mi). For the second part, we have that it was 1 hour (layover time), and the covered no distance. For the third part (traveling from Chicago to Los Angeles), we have that it was 2.75 hours, and it took the other half of the total distance (1400mi).

We can calculate the average speed of the whol travel using the following formula:

AverageSpeed=\frac{distance_{1}+distance_{2}+distance_{3}}{time_{1}+time{2}+time_{3}}

Now, substituting and calculating, we have:

AverageSpeed=\frac{1400mi+0mi+1400mi}{3.25h+1h+2.75h}

AverageSpeed=\frac{2800mi}{7h}=400mph

Hence, we have the average speed of the whole travel is equal to 400 mph.

Have a nice day!

7 0
4 years ago
A fan spins at 6.0 rev/s. You turn it off, and it slows at 1.0 rev/s2. What is the angular displacement before it stops
Komok [63]

Answer:

Angular displacement before it stops = 18 rev

Explanation:

Given:

Speed of fan w(i) = 6 rev/s

Speed of fan (Slow) ∝ = 1 rev/s

Final speed of fan w(f) = 0 rev/s

Find:

Angular displacement before it stops

Computation:

w(f)² = w(i) + 2∝θ

0² = 6² + 2(1)θ

0 = 36 + 2θ

2θ = -36

Angular displacement before it stops = -36 / 2

θ = -18

Angular displacement before it stops = 18 rev

4 0
3 years ago
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